How do Catholics explain 1 Timothy 2:5 and Hebrews 7:26?

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I agree with this. But beyond the consequence is the greater stain of real original sin that pervades the soul and leave an appetite of concupensence even after forgiven through baptism.
I see no support for the idea that we are held culpable for the sin of Adam – so here I have to disagree. In fact consider this verse:

"The person who sins will die. The son will not bear the punishment for the father’s iniquity, nor will the father bear the punishment for the son’s iniquity; the righteousness of the righteous will be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked will be upon himself (Ezekiel 18:20).

However, the fall made us sinners:

*But the man who has doubts is condemned if he eats, because his eating is not from faith; and everything that does not come from faith is sin (Romans 14:23).

What shall we conclude then? Are we any better? Not at all! We have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under sin. As it is written:
"There is no one righteous, not even one (Romans 3:9-10).

For I know that nothing good dwells in me, that is, in my flesh; for the willing is present in me, but the doing of the good is not (Romans 7:18).

“Surely there is not a righteous man on earth who does good and never sins” (Ecclesiastes 7:20).

“The natural person does not accept the things of the Spirit of God, for they are folly to him, and he is not able to understand them because they are spiritually discerned” (1 Corinthians 2:14).

“Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me” (Psalms 51:5).

“The heart is deceitful above all things, and desperately sick; who can understand it?” (Jeremiah 17:9).*

I can continue (there’s probably hundreds of other verses that say essentially the same thing) but I think you get the point.
Yes, original sin is forgiven during baptism. But I don’t want to get into the word semantics of how original sin it is transmitted or imputed. The way I conceptualize is that it is inherited since were all sub-types of Adam (and morally degrading ever more rapidly with each generation).
Baptism grafts us into a new sub-type of Jesus and Mary as new Adam and new Eve which type gives us a promise of a divine-human nature greater than Adams. For if Mary is blessed above all women that means Mary is greater than Eve. And if Jesus is the Son of Mary and God then those baptised and persevering in Christ are accepted by God as His divine Children through the new Divine Davidic lineage of Jesus. Pretty exciting stuff! 👍
I do not see Baptism as efficacious without faith. First – we’re not guilty of any sin as an infant. Sure we have a sin nature – and we are totally depraved, however, infants lack the intelligence required to form intent or have culpability.

So even if they die, for instance, without being baptized they will suffer no punishment.

"That servant who knows his master’s will and does not get ready or does not do what his master wants will be beaten with many blows. But the one who does not know and does things deserving punishment will be beaten with few blows. From everyone who has been given much, much will be demanded; and from the one who has been entrusted with much, much more will be asked (Luke 12:47-48).
 
You can not separate Jesus into his component parts. He is one, complete person.

So, if something A “almost” acts “as if” something B, does something A really act that way?

In other words, if I almost act as if I crossed the road, did I really cross the road?
In Christian law it takes two or more witnesses to convict somone of a crime. If some here want to open it up to include premeditated appearances of intention to commit an act I’d insist they have to provide witnesses who can at least qualify themselves by explaining the greater mysteries of why the chicken appeared to cross the road. 😉

James
 
You can not separate Jesus into his component parts. He is one, complete person.
I agree & overall Mary depicted as Mother of God is not a big deal for me; I’m merely pointing out obvious and valid objections one might have to the doctrine.
So, if something A “almost” acts “as if” something B, does something A really act that way?
In other words, if I almost act as if I crossed the road, did I really cross the road?
OK – let me put it another way. The RCC typologies of Mary operate under the premise that in order for Jesus to be a degree separated from sin an immaculate conception was required – rather than just understanding God could have rendered her free from sin and lifted any guilt for sin by filling her with grace at any point prior to the incarnation.

The doctrine of the Immaculate Conception evolved over time. First the RCC taught that Mary was incarnated by the Holy Spirit as Jesus was. This was necessary in their minds because in order for Jesus to be separated from sin Mary had to be as well. However, then Protestants objected because in order for this to hold true (in a logical sense) a chain of purity dating all the way back to our first parents would be required – and this was obviously not the case. Hence, the RCC view shifted – eventually morphing into what it is today (through a Papal declaration, which I believe was enumerated in 1870 or 1871 just after the doctrine of infallibility was enacted).

Simply stated – it’s speculation at best with no support (if there were any support for this doctrine the views of the church wouldn’t have evolved over time).
 
I see no support for the idea that we are held culpable for the sin of Adam – so here I have to disagree. In fact consider this verse:

"The person who sins will die. The son will not bear the punishment for the father’s iniquity, nor will the father bear the punishment for the son’s iniquity; the righteousness of the righteous will be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked will be upon himself (Ezekiel 18:20).

However, the fall made us sinners:

*But the man who has doubts is condemned if he eats, because his eating is not from faith; and everything that does not come from faith is sin (Romans 14:23).

What shall we conclude then? Are we any better? Not at all! We have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under sin. As it is written:
"There is no one righteous, not even one (Romans 3:9-10).

For I know that nothing good dwells in me, that is, in my flesh; for the willing is present in me, but the doing of the good is not (Romans 7:18).

“Surely there is not a righteous man on earth who does good and never sins” (Ecclesiastes 7:20).

“The natural person does not accept the things of the Spirit of God, for they are folly to him, and he is not able to understand them because they are spiritually discerned” (1 Corinthians 2:14).

“Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me” (Psalms 51:5).

“The heart is deceitful above all things, and desperately sick; who can understand it?” (Jeremiah 17:9).*

I can continue (there’s probably hundreds of other verses that say essentially the same thing) but I think you get the point.

I do not see Baptism as efficacious without faith. First – we’re not guilty of any sin as an infant. Sure we have a sin nature – and we are totally depraved, however, infants lack the intelligence required to form intent or have culpability.

So even if they die, for instance, without being baptized they will suffer no punishment.
This is not Catholic belief and understanding.

We believe that humanity is in some mysterious sense all “in Adam”. We are not personally guilty in so much as we are born into a state of sin and depravity from holiness and justice.

Here are some CCC excerpts on original sin. More Here: Original Sin

*404 How did the sin of Adam become the sin of all his descendants? The whole human race is in Adam “as one body of one man”.293 By this “unity of the human race” all men are implicated in Adam’s sin, as all are implicated in Christ’s justice. Still, the transmission of original sin is a mystery that we cannot fully understand. But we do know by Revelation that Adam had received original holiness and justice not for himself alone, but for all human nature. By yielding to the tempter, Adam and Eve committed a personal sin, but this sin affected the human nature that they would then transmit in a fallen state.294 It is a sin which will be transmitted by propagation to all mankind, that is, by the transmission of a human nature deprived of original holiness and justice. And that is why original sin is called “sin” only in an analogical sense: it is a sin “contracted” and not “committed” - a state and not an act.

405 Although it is proper to each individual,295 original sin does not have the character of a personal fault in any of Adam’s descendants. It is a deprivation of original holiness and justice, but human nature has not been totally corrupted: it is wounded in the natural powers proper to it, subject to ignorance, suffering and the dominion of death, and inclined to sin - an inclination to evil that is called concupiscence". Baptism, by imparting the life of Christ’s grace, erases original sin and turns a man back towards God, but the consequences for nature, weakened and inclined to evil, persist in man and summon him to spiritual battle. *

In the case of infants dieing unbaptised we leave it to God’s Mercy as to the disposition of the soul and recognize that an infant below the age of reason has not capacity to commit personal sin. However original sin is imparted to each of us at conception. And scripture tells us that we must be baptised to be saved. We can only hope that God has another supernatural means to save children who die unbaptised. My own conjecture is that Christian Catholic infants who are legitimate children of Catholic married couples essentially inherit their faith through the Catholic marriage covenant (a sacrament) that promises to raise children in the faith - which includes baptism. Thus there is a pre-expressed vow of intention to baptise and raise children in the faith so those that die unbaptised before the age of reason receive a baptism of desire similar to what the Good Thief received on the cross through solidarity of empathy with Christ’s suffering on the cross. Again - these are my own conjectures.

Here is some CCC on baptism

*977 Our Lord tied the forgiveness of sins to faith and Baptism: “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to the whole creation. He who believes and is baptized will be saved.”(Mk 16:15-16). Baptism is the first and chief sacrament of forgiveness of sins because it unites us with Christ, who died for our sins and rose for our justification, so that “we too might walk in newness of life.” (Rom 6:4; Cf. 4:25.)

1253 Baptism is the sacrament of faith.54 But faith needs the community of believers. It is only within the faith of the Church that each of the faithful can believe. The faith required for Baptism is not a perfect and mature faith, but a beginning that is called to develop. The catechumen or the godparent is asked: “What do you ask of God’s Church?” The response is: “Faith!”

1254 For all the baptized, children or adults, faith must grow after Baptism. For this reason the Church celebrates each year at the Easter Vigil the renewal of baptismal promises. Preparation for Baptism leads only to the threshold of new life. Baptism is the source of that new life in Christ from which the entire Christian life springs forth.

1255 For the grace of Baptism to unfold, the parents’ help is important. So too is the role of the godfather and godmother, who must be firm believers, able and ready to help the newly baptized - child or adult on the road of Christian life.55 Their task is a truly ecclesial function (officium).56 The whole ecclesial community bears some responsibility for the development and safeguarding of the grace given at Baptism. *
More here: Baptism

James
 
I agree & overall Mary depicted as Mother of God is not a big deal for me; I’m merely pointing out obvious and valid objections one might have to the doctrine.

OK – let me put it another way. The RCC typologies of Mary operate under the premise that in order for Jesus to be a degree separated from sin an immaculate conception was required – rather than just understanding God could have rendered her free from sin and lifted any guilt for sin by filling her with grace at any point prior to the incarnation.

The doctrine of the Immaculate Conception evolved over time. First the RCC taught that Mary was incarnated by the Holy Spirit as Jesus was. This was necessary in their minds because in order for Jesus to be separated from sin Mary had to be as well. However, then Protestants objected because in order for this to hold true (in a logical sense) a chain of purity dating all the way back to our first parents would be required – and this was obviously not the case. Hence, the RCC view shifted – eventually morphing into what it is today (through a Papal declaration, which I believe was enumerated in 1870 or 1871 just after the doctrine of infallibility was enacted).

Simply stated – it’s speculation at best with no support (if there were any support for this doctrine the views of the church wouldn’t have evolved over time).
What you are failing to incorporate here is that the Incarnation is nothing but God in His 2nd person stepping physically into space and time through the consummation of the hypostatic union - like a divine “narrow gate” or doorway to God opening up to humanity. In this sense, note the immediate imagery to the passover and the cross where blood is sprinkled over the lintel of the doorway (the cross).

Let’s not forget that Christ “son of Man” is the Son of both Mary and God The Father operating through the Holy Spirit. Christ is begotten in the today of eternity. So there is no contradiction to the expression of ‘Mary mother of God’ since this semantic is a human semantic which recognizes and respects that fact that Mary assented to cooperate and trust in God to “do it according to His Word” (reversing the mistrust of Adam and Eve). But this does not diminish God’s divinity nor His pre-existence in eternity. Mary simply cooperates and ascents to make it possible for God to become one like us and intimately bind Himself with humanity in a way that we can relate to through our human nature - God with us (Emanuel).

God could have rendered her free from sin before the Incarnation rather than made her immaculately conceived but when you get right down to it - its really the same thing in the “now” of eternity. Once you see this fact then it becomes clear that to object to the doctrine while accepting that God certainly has the power to do so demonstrates an arbitrary preference for what one personally wants to believe. Stubborn refusal to accept it is usually a sign of doctrinal bias - something taught by others.

Regardless of how we evolved into the dogma I trust in the guidance of the Holy Spirit brought us to the proper teaching.

James
 
I don’t see Paul mentioning any exception, not even Jesus. If you study Romans, the concept is that everyone born after the fall are born in sinful flesh.

There are several people in the scriptures that did not commit sin. Enoch, Jesus, maybe John the Baptist that I know off. That doesn’t make their bodies sinless.
Sinful bodies can die, and that’s what Jesus got from Mary, a sinful body, just like everyone else.
Hi Arglaze et al,

I was away from my computer for a few hours … came back to discover that about 60 posts had been added to this thread.

I think most of what you’ve posted has been responded to by others; but I would like to ask:
  1. sola_scriptura, do you agree with the post that I quoted?
  2. Arglaze, how did you come to the conclusion that Enoch (and maybe John the Baptist) never committed sin?
P.S. Have you seen the Protestants and the Council of Ephesus (431)? thread? (And if someone is thinking of saying “Why is it missing?” … well, knock yourself out.)
 
What you are failing to incorporate here is that the Incarnation is nothing but God in His 2nd person stepping physically into space and time through the consummation of the hypostatic union - like a divine “narrow gate” or doorway to God opening up to humanity. In this sense, note the immediate imagery to the passover and the cross where blood is sprinkled over the lintel of the doorway (the cross).
I notice the imagery of the picture you’re painting might have some attenuated resemblance with Passover. However, this is philosophical sophistry at its best (or perhaps even outright science fiction).

God is omnipresent isn’t He? Hence, why would He need to step through time when He already exists throughout time?

I don’t mind borrowing some concepts from physics when imagining heaven and God. It’s certainly a useful way to wrap our minds around some of these idea. However, realistically speaking science cannot explain God – nor can metaphysics.

The idea that heaven might reside in another dimension so to speak is plausible – however, the idea that God needs to traverse through some porthole in space time is fallacy at best. That idea would abrogate dozens of passages in scripture. When Jesus said the door was narrow He wasn’t referring to the size of the porthole through space that connects heaven and earth. :confused:
Let’s not forget that Christ “son of Man” is the Son of both Mary and God The Father operating through the Holy Spirit. **Christ is begotten in the today **of eternity. So there is no contradiction to the expression of ‘Mary mother of God’ since this semantic is a human semantic which recognizes and respects that fact that Mary assented to cooperate and trust in God to “do it according to His Word” (reversing the mistrust of Adam and Eve). But this does not diminish God’s divinity nor His pre-existence in eternity. Mary simply cooperates and ascents to make it possible for God to become one like us and intimately bind Himself with humanity in a way that we can relate to through our human nature - God with us (Emanuel).
I generally don’t have a problem with your assertions here.
God could have rendered her free from sin before the Incarnation rather than made her immaculately conceived but when you get right down to it - its really the same thing in the “now” of eternity. Once you see this fact then it becomes clear that to object to the doctrine while accepting that God certainly has the power to do so demonstrates an arbitrary preference for what one personally wants to believe. Stubborn refusal to accept it is usually a sign of doctrinal bias - something taught by others.
I prefer the term common sense. The fact is sinlessness is the least of my objections. Take the typology of Mary as Ark for instance – here’s an area where I can show the typology is erroneous. The same with the ideas of queen of heaven, spouse of the Holy Spirit, co-redeemer (or mediatrix of all graces), and some of the other ways Mary is depicted. So because I see all the obvious problems with Catholic Mariology I am hesitant to give the church the benefit of the doubt when it comes to doctrines that might be plausible. The fact is the sinlessness of Mary is speculation & there is simply no need to imagine Mary was sinless from birth.
Regardless of how we evolved into the dogma I trust in the guidance of the Holy Spirit brought us to the proper teaching.
I just don’t see it that way. First, I don’t view the definition of “church” as you do.

Obviously the terms visible and invisible church do not exist in scripture (like the term Trinity). However, there is ample support for the idea. Church is used in two important and distinct ways in scripture.

First, it is used to describe the body of Christ. All the references in scripture always define the body as the collective of all those in Christ (by grace through faith). In this sense we are all “the church” – our bodies are a temple for the Holy Spirit.

Second, it is used in a traditional sense – like temple. It is a congregation organized under a Pastor with elders (presbyters) and later (but still during the time of the Apostolic Fathers) it evolved into an episcopal structure.

However, none of the Apostolic Fathers served under a Pope at Rome – there is simply no proof for this idea. I’ve read almost every work from Polycarp, Ignatius, and Clement & they simply affirm the message of the Gospel writers and Paul; and never give any indication there was a central governing authority they were beholden to (frankly I think these works are valuable for all Christians to read). The Didache is also a good resource & view into early Christianity.

So under this dichotomy I would say that yes you’re right the Holy Spirit will ensure that the faithful in Christ and the visible churches they worship in will not fall to the devil. However, Scripture tells us even churches will be fooled by the devil from time to time. Erroneous ideas will arise. We have to remember – there is a wide drift between the gates of hell prevailing against a church and simply being wrong about a few things.

I believe the RCC is wrong & you believe Protestants are wrong? Thankfully, at least these days, our leaders take the high road and tend to focus on the things we have in common (and leave us to bicker about our differences). So time will tell who is right & who is wrong. I do believe eventually the RCC will come around – let’s face it they were coming around quite dramatically between the 16th century and late 19th century (until they made the wild declaration that a Pope can unilaterally create doctrine – going against over 1,800 years of tradition where only ecumenical councils created doctrine).

The Reformed churches never really went against the declarations made by the ecumenical councils. In fact many reformed theologians even agree with the depiction of Mary as mother of God (made by the Council of Ephesus). However, I do not think there is a church on earth that is perfect at this point – I just don’t. I’ve been studying theology for too long to think otherwise.
 
No it doesn’t. Jesus doesn’t have any of Joseph’s genetic material.[/QOUTE]
St. Joachim is Jesus’ maternal grandfather, St. Anne is Jesus’ maternal grandmother. Jesus can trace his lineage back.
Am I wrong?If Rome didn’t occupy Judea at this time,would Jesus have been King.Even if he were merely Josephs step son?
It happens in the Bible. Why does this offend you?
Like how to quote stuff…Not to worry…
I’ll figure it out…🤷
 
I notice the imagery of the picture you’re painting might have some attenuated resemblance with Passover. However, this is philosophical sophistry at its best (or perhaps even outright science fiction).

God is omnipresent isn’t He? Hence, why would He need to step through time when He already exists throughout time?

I don’t mind borrowing some concepts from physics when imagining heaven and God. It’s certainly a useful way to wrap our minds around some of these idea. However, realistically speaking science cannot explain God – nor can metaphysics.

The idea that heaven might reside in another dimension so to speak is plausible – however, the idea that God needs to traverse through some porthole in space time is fallacy at best. That idea would abrogate dozens of passages in scripture. When Jesus said the door was narrow He wasn’t referring to the size of the porthole through space that connects heaven and earth. :confused:
Yes of course God is omnipresent but humanity is not. The idea is for God to intimately involve Himself in a physical way with a sinful and fallen humanity so that we can touch, perceive, feel, hear and taste and see that God is good. This is why Eucharist is so vital to full christian revelation since God inverts the food chain so to speak and gives us a divine salvific fruit (metaphorically the bread of life - fruit from the Tree of Life) as an antidote to poison of the forbidden fruit by exploiting a fallen humanities craving and hunger for spiritual growth and restoration.

Sorry that you did not like my doorway metaphor. I was not trying to present it in a science fiction sense at all but rather a true spiritual sense where we enter literally into beatific unity with God The Father through Jesus - the narrow gate. The idea of narrowness is in the specificity that no one comes to the Father except through the narrow standard of Jesus Himself by picking up their cross and following him. 😉
I prefer the term common sense. The fact is sinlessness is the least of my objections. Take the typology of Mary as Ark for instance – here’s an area where I can show the typology is erroneous. The same with the ideas of queen of heaven, spouse of the Holy Spirit, co-redeemer (or mediatrix of all graces), and some of the other ways Mary is depicted. So because I see all the obvious problems with Catholic Mariology I am hesitant to give the church the benefit of the doubt when it comes to doctrines that might be plausible. The fact is the sinlessness of Mary is speculation & there is simply no need to imagine Mary was sinless from birth.
I think you are losing objectivity by assuming that the dogma was developed for convenience of politics, or dealing with competing ideas. I think the Marian dogmas evolved as a fruit of the Holy Spirit that is exactly timely with respect to a role Mary still has to play.
I just don’t see it that way. First, I don’t view the definition of “church” as you do.

I believe the RCC is wrong & you believe Protestants are wrong?
No, we differ on how we see the Church. The only invisible church is the Church Triumphant in heaven that we co-celebrate mass with and commune with through the communion of the saints. Now it is true that we Catholics believe that Protestants get to participate in a limited way with grace that flows through The Catholic Church - but that is not really an invisible church. That is still a physical church with members who are not in perfect communion and who don’t realize that they are members - just not formal members. Baptism makes you all Catholic whether you like it or not. 🙂

James
 
Who wrote those ‘Marian dogmas’? Jesus? Peter? Paul?
  1. Mary is the mother of God? Is that even a serious statement? Then that makes Abraham, Rahab the whore, David, and all of them God’s grandfathers and grandmothers? Oh!! I see, its trying to say that because the Holy Spirit used Mary’s womb to hide Jesus Divinity in mortality, that makes her the mother of God, even though its not mentioned in scripture that Jesus called Mary ‘Mother’. Well, fact is, Jesus existed before Mary was even made.
  2. Mary was conceived without sin (Immaculate Conception)? Where in the Bible is that? That’s a direct contradiction to
    “But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.” Galatians 3:22 &
    “For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God” Romans 3:23
  3. Mary remained a virgin her entire life (Perpetual Virginity)? Where in the Bible is that? Whoever wrote that must have been spying on Mary and Joseph every night. Common people, you don’t get married so you can have a virgin wife, you marry to form a family. Even the people that saw Jesus knew that he had brothers and sisters.
    “Is not this the carpenter’s son? is not his mother called Mary? and his brethren, James, and Joses, and Simon, and Judas? And his sisters, are they not all with us? Whence then hath this man all these things?” Matthew 13:55-56
  4. Mary was assumed into heaven at the end of her earthly life? Where is that in the Bible? I think the correct statement was: “we assume Mary went to heaven at the end of her earthly life.”
    Seriously now, Mary is no where mentioned after Jesus gave John to care for Mary, who even at his moment of death called her ‘woman’, not ‘mother’, and at the time that she was praying with Jesus’ brothers and sisters and his disciples later in Acts I think.
    Because Jesus has only 1 Father and no Mother, he’s eternal, Mary isn’t.
    Jesus is pre-historic, Mary isn’t.
    Jesus is pre-creation, Mary isn’t.
Therefore God used her womb to give Jesus a mortality so He could die for you and me. But she is not the literally speaking ‘mother of God’, that’s a false doctrine. Mary and Joseph were his parents, but not their Father and Mother in the sense the ‘marian dogma’ says.

Psalm 119:105 “Thy word [is] a lamp unto my feet, and a light unto my path.” not the ‘Marian dogma’ which are words of uninspired men, whoever they are.
Oh I tried so hard not to comment until I read the whole thread, alas I couldn’t do it.
(1) the “brothers” of Jesus are never called “sons of Mary”
(2) Some of these “brothers” advise and reprimand Jesus (John 7:3-4, Mark 3:21) In jewish culture younger brothers NEVER admonished an elder brother. Therefore they could not have been children of Mary.

Mathew 15 and John 19:27
In Mathew chpt 15, Jesus vehemently condemns the Pharisees because they had a procedure, the Korban rule, that allowed children to avoid taking care of their parents. In the OT, children had a solemn obligation to care for their elderly parents. This is why the Pharisees scheme to let people shirk this responsibility made Jesus so angry.
John 19:26-27 the scene at the cross. Jesus is about to die. Apparently, Joseph had alredy died because he is no longer mentioned after Jesus begins His ministry. Mary is in danger of being left alone, so He entrusts her to John the Apostle, Zebedee’s son, who is not a sibling of our Lord. If Jesus had younger siblings, as Protestants claim, His behavior makes no sense. JESUS HAD CONDEMNED THE PHARISEES FOR DISPENSING PEOPLE FROM THE RESPONSIBILITY OF CARING FOR THEIR PARENTS. Why would he dispense His own siblings from this important obligation? Such inconsistency is INCONCEIVABLE.
After the Ascension, the followers of Jesus- including Mary, John the Apostle with whom Mary now lived, and the brothers of Jesus gathered in the upper room Acts 1:13-14
If these brothers of Jesus were also Mary’s sons, Mary would be praying togethar with her son’s who were faithful followers of Jesus, and yet going home with John. In her jewish culture, such a situation would simply NOT HAPPEN.

Jesus Christ is not inconsistent.
I believe we’ve answered the “where is that in the Bible” Question.
 
Hi Arglaze et al,
I think most of what you’ve posted has been responded to by others; but I would like to ask:
2. Arglaze, how did you come to the conclusion that Enoch (and maybe John the Baptist) never committed sin?
You’re right on this, I’m taking that statement back. I will say however, Jesus himself said that of the children born of women, there was no one greater than John. John spent most of his life living in the desert. It is an assumption to say he didnt sin. But as a prophet of God, I highly doubt commuting sin was his regular practice. Keep in mind, “sin is the transgresion of the Law”.
Regarding Enoch, I don’t know either, but God took him to heaven. What does that tell us?
I’m taking it back, but living a life without comitting sin is possible for any human to do with the guidance of the Holy Spirit, so its not beyond the realm of possibility that they lived without sinning.
 
I’ll honor your request to not discuss the sinful body part, but I’ll just say. No, the statement doesn’t make Jesus less than Adam, it just states that anyone born after Adam inherits the tendency to decay and die. Jesus did not have a body different to anyone else’s. His body was sinful flesh.

“For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.” Romans 8:3-4

Though Jesus knew no sin.

If you reply to this, I will only answer privately, just so we can stay on topic.
Let me change the emphasis:
“. . . God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh . . .” In Christian soteriology, Jesus is sinless in every way, as Adam was.
 
You can not separate Jesus into his component parts. He is one, complete person.

So, if something A “almost” acts “as if” something B, does something A really act that way?

In other words, if I almost act as if I crossed the road, did I really cross the road?
Exactly.

Jesus is one complete divine Person with two natures, human and divine – according to the Chalcedonian definition, which all Christians accept.
 
FIRST, We HONOR the Blessed Virgin, not WORSHIP her as we do her Son. To those who teach other Christians without the proper understanding of the Catholic Universal Church and criticize making false judgments I put this thought to them. I, in my humanly imperfect way, must reflect on this in a manner consistent with a person who honored his own mother, knowing according to the ten commandments as well as the word of Jesus Himself, all of us are to honor our mother and father.

If our Lord Jesus were to stand before each of us in regard to this, I am quite confident of His displeasure. Isn’t it realistic to believe that our Lord may voice Himself in a manner such as this?

…How DARE you express a denial of honor showing disrespect to My mother whom I Myself loved, honored and respected from the beginning. The woman so blessed by My Heavenly Father to be chosen from all human kind as my mother and who’s very blood I share. My mother, who my Apostles loved and respected as their own in my absence until she rejoined me in my Father’s house. You, who show honor to women for being the mothers of your fallen one’s, your men so blessed from Heaven with their God given talents in sports, military, peace making and alike. Yet you refuse to show honor to this Blessed Virgin who birthed me? …As though less due honor and respect than those you pay honor to… Continue to deny My mother of due respect and honor, mocking and judging others for doing so and learn the path you choose. For the honor showed to My mother will never be as deep as what I hold for her but what you can and should offer in her honor is reflective of even more Honor and Worship to Me…

To explain it simply, the Catholic faith does not worship the Blessed Virgin but we certainly do honor Her with the respect befitting the Holy Mother of Jesus Christ. She is at times referred to as the “Queen of Heaven” based on recorded history and The Old Testament of The Holy Bible, which attests to the fact that the mother of a king held the seat of Queen and sat at his right hand with the highest position of influence to the king. Jesus is the King of Heaven. The blood of the Blessed Virgin flowed through the veins of our Lord just as the Blood of our Lord flowed through the veins of His Mother during Her pregnancy. As Jesus Christ is Her Son and the King of Heaven according to Scripture, and in testament to the fact that He brought all things of the Old Testament to fulfillment, to contradict Her position as the Queen of Heaven would be to contradict the word of our heavenly Father in the Old Testament itself. And do we not honor the mothers of our fallen soldiers, policeman and others? Of course we do. She is at times referred to as our “Blessed Mother” since our Lord as is attested to in scripture proclaimed her as the Mother of His disciples. As Jesus is God through the Father, we also at times refer to Her as the Mother of God. All references supported through scripture in the one true original Holy bible.

Show how these things are wrong.
I will kindly address your post when I have some more time.
 
I will kindly address your post when I have some more time.
Tlhanks, SIA, and remember, as an Anglican your communion holds a very high doctrine of the BVM. Starting with “Mother of God.”
 
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Originally Posted by mikeledes forums.catholic-questions.org/images/buttons_cad/viewpost.gif
*:confused: So in Jesus’s case “Lord” does not refer to the fact that He is God? *

God Bless,
Michael
It was actually refering to the fact that he was The Messiah. That’s the whole point of the Gospels. The Messiah that the Jews rejected.
Arglaze,

even though Lord CAN mean something less than God, It ALSO refered to Jesus as God.

And Thomas said “my Lord AND my God” [Jn 20:28]

God in this sentence is (“theos” in the Greek)

Definition of theos:

1) a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities

2) the Godhead, trinitya) God the Father, the first person in the trinityb) Christ, the second person of the trinityc) Holy Spirit, the third person in the trinity

3) spoken of the only and true Goda) refers to the things of Godb) his counsels, interests, things due to him

4) whatever can in any respect be likened unto God, or resemble him in any waya) God’s representative or viceregent
1) of magistrates and judges

 
If Mary was here with us as any other person I don’t think a Protestant Christian would have any problem asking her to intercede for them (unless they found out that she held doctrines that they do not believe in). Protestant Christians ask other living Christians to pray for them all the time. But, for whatever reason, the only person that Protestant Christians will talk to on the other side of the vail of death is Jesus Christ only. The Bible, however makes it very clear that Jesus is the Lord of both the living and the dead, we can ask anyone to intercede for us either on this side or that side of the veil of death; for all her living unto Him. And who among the Saints seems to be the greatest but the Virgin Mary for she is a saint because she gave birth to God Himself. She is more honorable than the Cherubim and beyond compare more glorious than the Seraphim. What Biblical Christian would not want to have her intercession in their lives!

Most Holy Theotokos save us!
 
:
:
Originally Posted by mikeledes forums.catholic-questions.org/images/buttons_cad/viewpost.gif
*:confused: So in Jesus’s case “Lord” does not refer to the fact that He is God? *

God Bless,
Michael
:
Originally Posted by Arglaze forums.catholic-questions.org/images/buttons_cad/viewpost.gif
It was actually refering to the fact that he was The Messiah. That’s the whole point of the Gospels. The Messiah that the Jews rejected.
Arglaze,

Re: Lord = God.

even though Lord CAN mean something less than God, It ALSO refered to Jesus as God.

And Thomas said “my Lord AND my God” [Jn 20:28]

From **Strongs **

Lord in this sentence is (“kurios” in the Greek)
God in this sentence is (“theos” in the Greek)

Definition of* Kurios*

1) he to whom a person or thing belongs, about which he has power of deciding; master, lorda) the possessor and disposer of a thing
1) the owner; one who has control of the person, the master

2) in the state: the sovereign, prince, chief, the Roman emperorb) is a title of honour expressive of respect and reverence, with which servants greet their masterc) this title is given to: God, the Messiah_________________________________
Definition of theos:

1) a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities

2) the Godhead, trinity
a) God the Father, the first person in the trinityb) Christ, the second person of the trinityc) Holy Spirit, the third person in the trinity3) spoken of the only and true Goda) refers to the things of Godb) his counsels, interests, things due to him4) whatever can in any respect be likened unto God, or resemble him in any waya) God’s representative or viceregent
1) of magistrates and judges

 
You can not separate Jesus into his component parts. He is one, complete person.

So, if something A “almost” acts “as if” something B, does something A really act that way?

In other words, if I almost act as if I crossed the road, did I really cross the road?
Ah a voice of reason…correct
If one denies Mary is the Mother of God, whether he realizes it or not, he is denying the Incarnation.
church history shows that Mary’s title of Mother of God was not rejected until 492. In that year a bishop named Nestorius promoted the heresy that Jesus is two distinct persons, and that Mary is the mother of the human person only. In 413 the council of Ephesus CONDEMNED this heresy. It did not surface again in Christianity until after the Reformation. The Nestorian heresy shows that correct belief about Mary preserves correct belief about Jesus. Protestant unwillingness to acknowledge Mary as the Mother of God is a radical departure from Sacred Scripture and the Fathers. It also implies that Jesus is either not God, or that He is two persons, BOTH of which are heresy’s.
 
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