A simple exercise in translation such as below will show why it is said that “All translators are liars.” It will also be clear why the Romans said “Idem non idem.” Translated, lol, that means the same (in one language) is not the same (in another language.)
And when it comes to the Bible, we have to ask a number of questions in addition to the questions pertinent only to translation in addition to the chief question about it, which is, "If Ieshua, Iusu, or whatever His name was in His own language spoke Aramaic, how are we to rust the Greek and Latin Gospels compiled at later dates which do not have Jesus’ nihil obstat and imprimature?
Additional serious questions are to be asked about many things, such as the natures of witnessing, meaning, communication, the collection process, interpretation, etc, etc. There are books on comparative religion that give some remarkable insights as to these concerns, as well as the most disconcerting one, the nature of insertions and deletions according to agendas, alleged or real of the Fathers of the Church. We also have to remember that there are, according to experts, very unclear areas in the early history of the Church when it comes to distinguishing christianist practices from pagan practices, such as the celebratory meal.
The question of greatest importance, though, bar none, is whether or not the Church is itself no more than the popularization of a very practical and functional mythology aimed at spiritual transformation of the few rare people who could actually do that. Many of the statements attributed to Jesus actually bear this out, horrified piety of standard Catholics not withstanding. This goes with another question of fundamental importance.
That is the question of whether or not religion or good have anything but a nodding acquaintance with one another. Certainly religions are about “God,” or at least people’s thoughts about God, but is God about religion? Clearly not. If all men and women on the Earth came as the result of God’s Creation, then the fact that religions tend to be local and parochial seems to point to the idea that religion is an idea of mankind. Even the relationship of Catholicism to such things as Zoroastrianism, ancient Egyptian religions, and paganism seems to bear this out. If these are denied, it is through the blindness of piety and general ignorance of the history and nature of religions.
Here is the exercise:
There is also the question of where is one studying the bible from? As in the thread question, understanding of the Bible has “evolved.” Does one study the Bible piously from the inside, having made a faith commitment to a particular stream of consensus, or from the outside as a phenomenon of history, literature, and interpretive thought, or both?
How many ordinary readers of the Bible, for instance, have considered such pertinent disciplines as anthropology, archeology, comparative linguistics and religion, theory of meaning, semantics, symbology, General Semantics, mythology, the natures of abstracting, witnessing, memory, collections, processes in the formation of groups and their interactions, the nature of belief itself relative to human psychology, integrational philosophy, communication theory, single and multi- level logics, etc, etc, etc?
Not many have, I wager, even taken a superficial course that includes these matters, as easy as it is to get a course book on such. Eg, here is a very simple exercise in translation. Below are four sentences in English. Can you come up with the exact meaning? The question is based on the fact that texts in Hebrew and Aramaic are written without vowels, punctuation, or capitalization and depend on context for the meanings of consonant groups. Try it:
1: THSSNXPRMNTNTHDCPHRNGFMSSG
2: THBBLFTHHBRWSWSWRTTNNTHSMNNRWTHTVWLSNDWT HTPNCTTNFNYKND
3: TSMSCLRTHTMNYRRRSFNTRPRTNCLDBMD
4: FRXMPLGDSNWHRCLDBNDRSTDBYSMNTBNSTDGDSNWR
One might soon agree with Robert Ingersoll that it could take twice as much inspiration to read such text as to write it. And then, despite crediting earlier translators with devotion and piety, and knowing in more detail some technicalities of language, are we in our century yet familiar with words, idioms, and modes of thinking of the original writers of whose work we only have copies, some of them obviously altered? For my part, I have to ask myself: Am I devoted to theological ideas based on original perception, or on linguistic events that took place well after the fresh revelation?
Again, how many know that “rope” is in fact the preferred translation now of the consonant group GML, not “camel.” Also, in the story of Elijah, is RBM “Arabs,” “ravens,” or “the inhabitants of Oreb,” a village hard near where Elijah was ensconced on the brook of Cherith? The only sensical translation is now thought to be “the inhabitants of Oreb.” And two millenia of misogyny might be attributed to the mistranslation of TZD, which actually means “side,” not “rib” and all the implications ancient and modern that go with that.
These differences are predicated on the actual speaking of Aramaic as we now know it. A critical example to some points of faith is this one: where is the comma in Luke 28:43? Is it “Verily, I say unto you, today…”? Or is it “Verily, I say unto you today, …”? The second is the nuance preferred by native speakers of Aramaic in their idiom, changing a major point of “proof” theology. The Bible, all of the versions of it, are riddled with such considerations.
That last one hinges on a comma!!! Which wasn’t there! In Fresno, California, on May 5, 1969. a barber and another man shot each other to death over the true meaning of certain passages of the Bible. The true meaning!!! Is that the kind of piety and devotion we are at the level of here? Is that what we have evolved to? What an excellent recommendation (along with Northern Ireland etc, etc.) for christianism."