How Do I Convince My Wife Not To Read a Protestant Bible?

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Church Militant,

I went to the link you posted and I guess I am confused.

The very first entry in the list that says:
Scripture Catholic:
Matt. 2:16 - Herod’s decree of slaying innocent children was prophesied in Wis. 11:7 - slaying the holy innocents.
Okay, let’s take a look at:
Matthew 2:16-18:
16 Then Herod, when he saw that he had been tricked by the wise men, became furious, and he sent and killed all the male children in Bethlehem and in all that region who were two years old or under, according to the time that he had ascertained from the wise men. 17 Then was fulfilled what was spoken by the prophet Jeremiah: 18 “ A voice was heard in Ramah, weeping and loud lamentation, Rachel weeping for her children; she refused to be comforted, because they care no more.
We see from the text itself:
a.) no mention of Wisdom
b.) the statement that the prophecy comes from Jeremiah, which reads as follows:
40.png
Jeremiah:
15 Thus says the Lord: “ A voice is heard in Ramah, lamentation and bitter weeping. Rachel is weeping for her children; she refuses to be comforted for her children, because they are no more.”
It appears to me (and Matthew too) that the prophecy clearly comes from Jeremiah, mainly because Matthew tells us this. But let’s be fair and look at Wisdom 11:1-8
Wisdom 11:1-7:
Wisdom 11:1-8 She prospered their works in the hands of the holy prophet. 2 They went through wildernesses that were not inhabited, and in desert places they pitched their tents. 3 They stood against their enemies, and revenged themselves of their adversaries. 4 They were thirsty, and they called upon thee, and water was given them out of the high rock, and a refreshment of their thirst out of the hard stone. 5 For by what things their enemies were punished, when their drink failed them, while the children of Israel abounded therewith, and rejoiced: 6 By the same things they in their need were benefited. 7 For instead of a fountain of an ever running river, thou gavest human blood to the unjust. 8 And whilst they were diminished for a manifest reproof of their murdering the infants, thou gavest to thine abundant water unlooked for:
It seems that Wisdom is describing Israel’s plight in Egypt and the wilderness doesn’t it? I think this is a case of one of your Catholic apologists trying too hard to make his case.

But, let’s not stop here, let’s see what at least one other Catholic source says. Let’s look at the Haydock commentary.

The Haydock Commentary (hardly a pro-Protestant) source says that the prophecy in Matthew comes from Jeremiah too.
Haydock:
16 Then Herod perceiving that he was deluded by the wise men, was exceeding angry; and sending killed all the men children that were in Bethlehem, and in all the borders thereof, from two years old and under, according to the time which he had diligently inquired of the wise men. 17 Then was fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremias the prophet, saying: 18 A voice in Rama was heard, lamentation and great mourning; Rachel bewailing her children, and would not be comforted, because they are not.
I don’t see how you have any case at all for the first item on the list at Scripture Catholic.
 
Church Militant,

Okay, I give up. Whoever came up with this list at scripture catholic should take the list down. I have only done a short look through of the site and see that the “list” has many problems.

Let’s look at this one:
scirpture catholic:
Luke 21:24 - Jesus’ usage of “fall by the edge of the sword” follows Sirach 28:18.
This one was particulary silly. If you look for the phrase “edge of the sword” you will find that it occurs over 27 times.

How scripture catholic has decided that Jesus must be quoting, alluding to, or following Sirach when it’s such a common phrase is beyond me.

I don’t have the time to debunk all of scripture catholic’s references but it doesn’t appear that it would be all that hard. Right off the bat I found several issues and am certain that there are many more.

So, judging by scripture catholic’s list it doesn’t appear that there are any quotes or many references to the deutero’s by Jesus or the apostles.

Since it certainly appears there is no evidence contained within the scriptures that Jesus or the apostles thought the deutero’s were inspired that leaves us with one other issue.

Earlier you claimed that Jesus and the apostles used the septuagint and that their bible contained the deutero’s.

Can you provide us with exactly which version of the septuagint was used by the apostles and exactly which books it contained?
 
Church Militant,

Roger Beckwith has this to say about deutero quotes in the NT
Beckwith:
…but the undeniable truth is that the New Testament, by contrast with the early Fathers, and by contrast with its own practice in relation to the books of the Hebrew Bible, never actually quotes from, or ascribes authority to, any of the Apocrypha. All one can say is that there is an occasional correspondence of thought which suggests a knowledge of some of them…
Beckwith, Roger T.: The Old Testament Canon of the New Testament Church and Its Background in Early Judaism. London : SPCK, 1985, S. 387
 
What of the ECF’s that rejected the deuterocanonicals? What of the vulgate that was sent out complete with Jerome’s derogatory comments about the deutero’s?
These were influenced by the Palestinians, who gave them to understand that the Palestinian Bible was the one used during the First Century. Later on, they realized that that was not actually true; the Pope and the Magisterium of the Church went with the Alexandrian Bible, which in fact was the one used by Jesus and the Apostles in the First Century; the Palestinian Bible did not even exist yet, prior to 90 AD… well after Christ had transferred authority away from the Jewish Temple, and to the Apostles and their successors.

It is noteworthy that, despite his initial doubts, St. Jerome obeyed the Magisterium, and later on, came to agree with the Magisterium, and even argued in favour of the Deuterocanon, later on.
 
These were influenced by the Palestinians, who gave them to understand that the Palestinian Bible was the one used during the First Century. Later on, they realized that that was not actually true; the Pope and the Magisterium of the Church went with the Alexandrian Bible, which in fact was the one used by Jesus and the Apostles in the First Century; the Palestinian Bible did not even exist yet, prior to 90 AD… well after Christ had transferred authority away from the Jewish Temple, and to the Apostles and their successors.

It is noteworthy that, despite his initial doubts, St. Jerome obeyed the Magisterium, and later on, came to agree with the Magisterium, and even argued in favour of the Deuterocanon, later on.
If you believe that there was an Alexandrian canon (I don’t) I have a few questions:
a.) Which books comprised the supposed Alexandrian canon and how do we know this? For example, do we have records of someone like a Philo or a Josephus listing these books for the Jews of the first and earlier centuries? Are there manuscripts (fragmentary or otherwise) of the Alexandrian canon?

b.) It seems you don’t think the Palestinian canon was used by the Jews of the first century? Why do you believe this to be the case?

c.) You say that Jesus and the apostles used the Alexandrian canon and I assume you mean the septuagint. Is this right?

d.) In your above post, you mention that the Palestinian canon didn’t exist until 90 ad. I am assuming you think that the council of Jamnia determined the extent of the canon for the Jews by throwing out the deutero’s. Is this a correct understanding of your position?
 
The main reason for someone to Not read a Protestant bible is the historical witness of the Holy Spirit for over 1500 years.

Anyone who believes that God would have no problem with christians all around the world reading the wrong bible for 1500 years believe in a Heartless God with no care for souls.

God wouldn’t let that happen!

God didn’t let that happen!

And yes I’ll believe what the Church did for 1500 years over a bunch of Heretics any day!
 
c.) You say that Jesus and the apostles used the Alexandrian canon and I assume you mean the septuagint. Is this right?
Yes.
d.) In your above post, you mention that the Palestinian canon didn’t exist until 90 ad. I am assuming you think that the council of Jamnia determined the extent of the canon for the Jews by throwing out the deutero’s. Is this a correct understanding of your position?
Together with all of the Books of the New Testament, yes, the Council of Jamnia rejected all writings that were (or appeared to be) directed to Greek-speaking Jews in favour of a “pure” Hebrew-only tradition - thus, the Deuterocanon, plus large portions of both the Book of Esther and the Book of Daniel were rejected, along with all of the books existing at that time of what we now know to be the New Testament (the Gospel of John and the Book of Revelation were not yet written), and all books related to the New Testament such as Clement’s Letter to the Corinthians, the Shepherd of Hermas, the Teaching of the Apostles of Jesus Christ (aka the Didache), etc.
 
Together with all of the Books of the New Testament, yes, the Council of Jamnia rejected all writings that were (or appeared to be) directed to Greek-speaking Jews in favour of a “pure” Hebrew-only tradition - thus, the Deuterocanon, plus large portions of both the Book of Esther and the Book of Daniel were rejected, along with all of the books existing at that time of what we now know to be the New Testament (the Gospel of John and the Book of Revelation were not yet written), and all books related to the New Testament such as Clement’s Letter to the Corinthians, the Shepherd of Hermas, the Teaching of the Apostles of Jesus Christ (aka the Didache), etc.
JMcrae,

Thanks for your response. I don’t think the deutero’s were even discussed at Jamnia. I say this because both Beckwith and FF Bruce say this…I am no scholar nor do I pretend to be.

Anyway, here is what Beckwith has to say about Jamnia:
Roger Beckwith:
The theory that an open canon was closed at the Synod of Jamnia about ad 90 goes back to Heinrich Graetz in 1871, who proposed (rather more cautiously than has since been the custom) that the Synod of Jamnia led to the closing of the canon.4 Though others have lately expressed hesitations about the theory, its complete refutation has been the work of J. P. Lewis5 and S. Z. Leiman.6 The combined result of their investigations is as follows:

(a) The term ‘synod’ or ‘council’ is inappropriate. The academy at Jamnia, established by Rabbi Johanan ben Zakkai shortly before the fall of Jerusalem in ad 70, was both a college and a legislative body, and the occasion in question was a session of the elders there.
(b) The date of the session may have been as early as ad 75 or as late as ad 117.
(c) As regards the disputed books, the discussion was confined to the question whether Ecclesiastes and the Song of Songs (or possibly Ecclesiastes alone) make the hands unclean, i.e. are divinely inspired.7(d) The decision reached was not regarded as authoritative, since contrary opinions continued to be expressed throughout the second century.

The assumption that the canon was closed at Jamnia about ad 90 has been elaborated by different writers in various ways. Some have seen it as part of the reorganization of Judaism after the fall of Jerusalem;8 some, as part of the polemic against Christianity;9 and some, as of a piece with the standardization of the Massoretic text.10 If, however, the canon was not closed about ad 90 but a long time before, all these corollaries lose the premiss on which they depend. Similarly, any inference that the canon was decided by councils must be abandoned. The session at Jamnia was not a council, and the decision it made was not regarded as authoritative:…

Beckwith, Roger T.: The Old Testament Canon of the New Testament Church and Its Background in Early Judaism. London : SPCK, 1985, S. 276
FF Bruce has this to say:
FF Bruce:
So far as the scriptures are concerned, the rabbis at Jamnia introduced no innovations; they reviewed the tradition they had received and left it more or less as it was. It is probably unwise to talk as if there was a Council or Synod of Jamnia which laid down the limits of the Old Testament canon.
It is because of these two gentlemen, as well as a few others that I don’t believe the rabbi’s at Jamnia even discussed the status of the deutero’s.

That said, if you have evidence that the rabbi’s at Jamnia discussed the status of the deutero’s I would like to see it. By evidence I would like to see something that isn’t from an apologist. For example, I wouldn’t quote James White as the final say on this issue to you for two reasons. First, you may be extremely biased against JW (maybe you aren’t) and secondly he would be relying on someone elses work and it is that “someone” else whom I am interested in.
 
The main reason for someone to Not read a Protestant bible is the historical witness of the Holy Spirit for over 1500 years.

Anyone who believes that God would have no problem with christians all around the world reading the wrong bible for 1500 years believe in a Heartless God with no care for souls.

God wouldn’t let that happen!

God didn’t let that happen!

And yes I’ll believe what the Church did for 1500 years over a bunch of Heretics any day!
I’m assuming your above response has to do w/ the deuterocanonical books.

Your church did not make it binding upon the conscious of faithful Catholics to accept the deutero’s until Trent. Up until that time members of your church were rather free in accepting them or rejecting them.

Funny how history works.
 
I wanted to make a few corrections to my earlier post (#51).
I have known many people who were not advid readers. They used the Living Bible (NIV) as their first Bible. After reading that version and becoming comfortable with their understanding of the Scriptures, they would read the translation most commonly used within their own denomination. In most cases this translation is the RSV. The RSV is the translation used by most non-Catholic denominations and is the translation of the Catholic Youth Bible mentioned in my previous post. The main point is there is no reason to fear a translation that differs from the official Catholic translation. The use of these other translations can help with ecumenical dialogue and explaining Catholic teaching to those of different faith traditions.
 
QUOTE]What are you afraid of? The Word of God is the Word of God. The only difference is the Apocrypha that the RCC version added but the rest is the same.
Only a real ignorat of Bible history would say that the RCC added the deuterocanonials.
 
My wife’s friend gave her an NIV study bible. I’ve been telling her that it’s not a Catholic bible and that if she wants to study the Bible based on our faith, she should study one of the approved Catholic versions.

Does anyone have any suggestions? Is there any information from USCCB that would help me convince her it’s not good to read a Protestant version?

Thanks!
With reflection, I am of the opinion that you do not need to convice anyone to use a “Protestant” version of the Bible.

It is** in fact, an Opportunity to communicate and to learn for each other.**
For sure, we know that the Roman Catholic “Imprimatur” Bibles and her teachings has the Correct understand of Sacred Scriptures and the TRUTHS of Jesus’ teachings.

So I think it is good for you to learn more through searching, and to explain and share
What you believe and
Why you believe in What you believe
whenever the opportunity arise.

This may be a Blessing than a curse to both of you .
 
is because of these two gentlemen, as well as a few others that I don’t believe the rabbi’s at Jamnia even discussed the status of the deutero’s.
That said, if you have evidence that the rabbi’s at Jamnia discussed the status of the deutero’s I would like to see it. By evidence I would like to see something that isn’t from an apologist. For example, I wouldn’t quote James White as the final say on this issue to you for two reasons. First, you may be extremely biased against JW (maybe you aren’t) and secondly he would be relying on someone elses work and it is that “someone” else whom I am interested in.
Look I’m a Deist, not a Catholic and while is true that the Pharisees had their canon more or less closed before the Yabnè (Jamma) shul finally closing the canon, it was not the same reality for other Jewish sects and for the early chrisitans that were just a jewish sect. The fact is that the OT canon was growing in Jesus times.
The reason why the Pharisees closed the canon to Books written in Hebrew after the return of Babylon is well known. And has do do with some other books written in aramaic or greek both Catholics, Orthodox and Protestant have in their Bibles.
And the Pharisees cheated on themselves including the book of Daniel and the book of Esther that in my opinion are more aphocryphal than Maccabees, Ben Sirach and Wisdom. And were written at the same time.
I do not think St Jerome and Athanasius or by the way the reformers were aware of the sordid motives of the Pharisees, their mistake was to believe the Jewish canon was a done thing in the first century.
 
I’m assuming your above response has to do w/ the deuterocanonical books.

Your church did not make it binding upon the conscious of faithful Catholics to accept the deutero’s until Trent. Up until that time members of your church were rather free in accepting them or rejecting them.

Funny how history works.
Alright, let’s talk about the Deuterocanonicals. As you know, there were all kinds of different kinds of scripture canons floating around during the time of Our Lord, but the first time that the seven deuteros were specifically excluded as a group was during the Council of Javneh in in 90 AD, when rabbis compiled the definitive Hebrew canon of scripture. You will of course agree that this is not binding for Christians, but why hold such a council? To stop Christianity from moving into Judaism’s “territory”, that’s why! Javneh also made definitive pronouncements on the Gospels. The point of this Council was to stop Christianity from spreading in Israel, and the best way to do so was to remove books that deeply reflected the practices of Christians. Many Jews converted to Christianity after reading the Deuteros, and Jewish leaders wanted to stop this.

As to the Septuagint–how do you explain the fact that two thirds of OT quotes came from the Septuagint? Even if the Apostles didn’t use it exclusively, the fact that they used it most of the time seems to acknowledge the fact that they didn’t see any glaring, major errors in it, like the inclusions of non-inspired books. And think of it this way–of all the OT manuscripts available at the time, dozens of writers living in different places at different times all seem to have this one in common at least some of the time, something that no other manuscript can make a claim to. They also never gave instructions that seven OT books ought to be excluded.

True, we don’t know when and by whom the Septuagint was written, but we don’t know that about the Book of Hebrews in the NT either. (for a further defence of the septuagint, read here ecclesia.org/truth/defense.html)).

As to Patristic acknowledgement, Protestant scholar JND Kelley seems to acknowledge that regardless of what was added to bibles before the 3rd century, the deuteros, like the books that we agree are inspired, were virtually never left out.

Why was the canon only finalized at the Council of Rome in 382? It is a longstanding Catholic tradition (and, it seems, a directive of the Holy Ghost) that things are not infallibly defined until they either are abused, or popular demand means its written infallibility would be beneficial. If everyone had the same canon of scripture, the Church wouldn’t have defined things, since they don’t do these things when they are unnecessary. Also, none of the Church fathers exclude these books. Athanasius accpeted them, and several absolutely uncanonical books, and Origen said they shouldn’t be used in debate, but The Church fathers (with the exception of Jerome, who conformed to the popular view after a better look at these seven books) no Patristic writer seems to exclude the deuteros.

Now let’s look at what happened during the Reformation. Martin Luther, being quite irate with abuses being perpetrated by many Catholics, re-defined the canon to better suit his own beliefs. He took out the seven OT books, as well as Hebrews, James, Jude, and Revelation. He did so with no precedent other than a few early writings by Jerome that were later recanted, and a the Jewish council of Javneh. Also, the removal of these 4 NT books clearly demonstrate his inability to produce an unbiased, correct canon. Other Protestant reformers decided to put the four NT books back in, but followed Luther’s OT canon, again without precedent.

Eventually, many Protestant scholars began trying to rewrite history, making the outrageous claim that they were added at Trent. Anyone who has read the decrees of Trent knows that isn’t true.

In short, there was never a real line drawn between the seven deuterocanonicals and other books in Christianity before Martin Luther removed them for purely doctrinal reasons, and those who argue that they are not inspired need to more clearly draw some kind of distinction between these and the other books before the arguments become truly feasible.
 
I would say that it may not be as bad as you think. The notes will be in error on many things, and I might also suggest that you join her and make the notes a source of study to compare those interpretations with both what a translation like the RSV-CE, Douay-Rheims, offers as well as the Catechism or other authentic Catholic sources. It is my thinking that both of you will come away with a much deeper and stronger Catholic faith.Well this is true in that it is also sometimes translated as “elders”.None of them do, mainly because though it is found in Acts 9:31 (η μεν ουν εκκλησια καθ ολης της ιουδαιας και γαλιλαιας και σαμαρειας ειχεν ειρηνην οικοδομουμενη και πορευομενη τω φοβω του κυριου και τη παρακλησει του αγιου πνευματος επληθυνετο), the context is properly translated “So the church throughout all Judea and Galilee and Sama’ria had peace and was built up; and walking in the fear of the Lord and in the comfort of the Holy Spirit it was multiplied.” (RSV) though a literal translation of the underlined words would indeed be Catholic Church. I suppose an alternate translation might be “So the Catholic Church in Judea and Galilee and Sama’ria had peace and was built up;” but I am not qualified to make that assessment.
Yes, but that is an n-C/a-C doctrinal interpretation and not what the Bible actually is saying.
You’re absolutely right there, but again, so long as one is objective and compares the notes to the Word of God and to catholic sources the shortcomings and errors should pretty much glow in the dark. At least they did for me…A good point and a good suggestion. I have heard very good things about the Catholic Answers Study Bible.This is not true. In fact, Scripture Catholica very extensive list of New Testament verses and passages that are references to Deuterocanonical passages and I have a good article by my friend Wolsely on this here. The Deuterocanonical Books of the Catholic Bible that will be a good source on this.

There is also the fact that even in Jesus’ day Hebrew was largely a dead language and just as the New Testament was written in Greek because that is what most educated people read and spoke (Due to previous Greek conquests and influence it became the “Lingua Franca” of the day.), so also the majority of Jews of that time used the Greek Septuagint text of the OT which did indeed include the DCs.
Just agreeing with CM here!!👍
The NIV is a fair to middling version. It has the advantage of being easy to read, however. (I think its supposed to be written at about a 6th or 7th grade level).
The notes are the thing that may cause problems. But you know, there is this thing about notes in a Bible: Just because they are in there, doesn’t mean that they have to be treated as part of the Bible. You can just read right on past them. (As I recall, the print on the notes in the NIV study Bible is **so **teeny, that most people aren’t going to read much of them, anyway).

Buying her a different Bible is a brilliant idea!!

PS: I use my NIV these days, like a dictionary or something: when something doesn’t “click”, I pull it out, and read the same verses in the easier language. Sometimes it helps, sometimes not.🤷
 
As you know, there were all kinds of different kinds of scripture canons floating around during the time of Our Lord, but the first time that the seven deuteros were specifically excluded as a group was during the Council of Javneh in in 90 AD, when rabbis compiled the definitive Hebrew canon of scripture.

As to the Septuagint–how do you explain the fact that two thirds of OT quotes came from the Septuagint? Even if the Apostles didn’t use it exclusively, the fact that they used it most of the time seems to acknowledge the fact that they didn’t see any glaring, major errors in it, like the inclusions of non-inspired books. And think of it this way–of all the OT manuscripts available at the time, dozens of writers living in different places at different times all seem to have this one in common at least some of the time, something that no other manuscript can make a claim to. They also never gave instructions that seven OT books ought to be excluded.
Thanks for your post. I’m not to interested in debating the inspirtation of the deutero’s but am very interested in seeing if we can:
a.) Determine what books the early (first century and earlier) septuagint contained and were there any variations to the septuagint at that date.

b.) Determine from the NT what the apostles or Jesus thought of the deutero’s? I don’t think we can absolutely determine this one way or the other but I am interested in seeing what others think.

In light of your above post I do have a few questions:
a.) What evidence do you have that Jamnia even discussed the deutero’s? I have recently become rather fascinated by this subject and have only to resources. One being Beckwith’s “OT Canon In The NT Church” and the other by FF Bruce, “Canon of Scripture” and both of them report that Jamnia didn’t discuss the deutero’s at all. They could be wrong but that’s what they wrote.

b.) Do we (you, me, or anyone else) have any way of knowing exactly what the septuagint looked like in the first century or earlier? Were there different versions? What books did the earlier septuagint(s) contain and how do we know this?

To the best of my knowledge the septuagints that we have access to date only to the third or fourth century (I believe they only date to the fourth but may be wrong and am too lazy to look it up right now). The earliest codices we have are the Vaticanus, Sainiticus, and Alexadrinus but these are all Christian copies and vary in content.
 
What did the NIV change?
I’ve already noted one example earlier in this thread, as well as linked to an article (written by an Evanglical, John Piper) describing many other changes.
Also, do you believe all Catholic translations are free of error and or bias?
Probably not, but there are ecumenical translations (like the RSV) which are reasonably acceptable both to Evangelicals and Catholics and include translations of the deuterocanonicals.
Now who’s into conspiracy theories!!! :hypno:
It’s not a conspiracy theory if the point is proven. The NIV was translated by Evangelicals, for Evangelicals, and includes much Evangelical interpretation as a result. To quote John Piper (an Evangelical who does not use the NIV for these reasons):
Key question: the NIV appeared in 1978. I read it. Why didn’t I use it? The reason I didn’t use it is the reason I am here tonight. The NIV is the best-selling modern translation of the Bible. There are about 150 million copies in print. The NIV makes up about 30% of all Bible sales. Among evangelicals the percentage would be far above 30% and is probably the Bible most evangelicals read most often. And the one most pastors use in preaching. Why am I not on board?
Not only am I not on board. I would be happy to see the NIV sail into the sunset if it could be replaced by the ESV as the standard preaching, reading, memorizing Bible of the English-speaking church. I feel so strongly about this that I volunteered to do this tonight before I was asked. There is no coercion here. I feel what I am about to say with a passion built up over 25 years. I have longed that there be something more readable than the NASB and more literal than the NIV. The NIV is a paraphrase with so much unnecessary rewording and so much interpretation that I could not preach from it.
“Hypno” eyes and accusations of conspiracy theories do not constitute a counterargument.

Jeremy
 
Reading the Holy Scripture can be compared with the little boy who stands on the shore of the ocean and wants to comprehend the ocean.
He can just pick up the part of that ocean with his palms , very small part of the ocean.
Holy Scripture is the ocean !

The greatest Bible scholars ,during all times , who were studiyng the Bible all their life , still couldn’t comprehend it totally , having many questions about Biblical misteries and secrets.

What to say about us, even with our education and intelligence ?

What we can know ourselves without the Church explanatory commentaries on the Scripture texts ?

In my opinion the other renovated theological traditions just borrowed from the Catholic Church all the main Biblical truths , but the Catholic Church in its explorations in theology has experience , has the Divine authority and stamp.
Therefore it is very important to study the Catholic Bible.
AMEN! 👍
 
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