T
Teflon93
Guest
Pardon me, but do you NOT realize the large number of children in households during the 1st century A.D.?So it is perfectly acceptable to ASSUME there were INFANTs in that household and then base 2000 years of tradition on that ASSUMPTION? Is that your position?
This is not the 2.5 children per household of the late 20th century.
Whom do you believe comprised “the household” if children were excluded?
You are reasoning backwards from the spurious notion that one must reach some magical “age of consent” which is completely anachronistic, is nowhere found until the Reformers needed a convenient lie to justify their schisms after the fact, and is frankly complete hogwash in light of an argument you likewise have not responded to: that the apostles believed the end of the world was IMMINENT, and thus would hardly be expected to wait 13 or 16 or 18 or 21 years or whatever this magical age of consent was to bring children to Christ through baptism as he commanded.
Why are you so wed to the notion that infant baptism is somehow evil? Is it simply because you think yours was somehow invalid?