M
MindOverMatter2
Guest
That you cannot understand moral value in any other sense than as a subjective desire for the well-being of an object, is irrelevant to the argument that I am making.Value is therefore subjective.
If value is subjective then it is not objectively true of human nature. If it is not objectively true of human nature, then it is irrational to say that it is true that human nature has true moral value; that we ought to treat people in a particular way. Given metaphysical naturalism, human nature does not have any value, accept what you imagine it to have. A fantasy is a fantasy; it does not matter how strongly you state it.
No it does not because your argument is blatantly irrational in that it ignores the relevance of objectivity when stating that something is true. Moral value is only true of a nature if the basis of that value is objective as opposed to subjective. You argument amounts to nothing more than the fact that you would like to force your subjective opinion of the objective nature of things.So all of those things do actually make it immoral to treat someone as if they had no value.
What you are saying here is meaninglessIt is another question whether it is immoral to avoid buying from a particular company for personal reasons. It is much easier to argue that it would be wrong to boycott a business because of the beliefs, rather than behaviour, of the proprietor.