It doesn’t.Of course God’s Words are supreme.However,show me where in scripture it says the Word of God is binded only to WRITTEN words?
But sometimes, in the past, with cannons.Not with canons, that’s for sure.
http://i266.photobucket.com/albums/ii269/theogrit/bf-piratebullet.gif
(sorry, I couldn’t resist.)
Certainly.And Jesus *is *the Word of God.
Actually Dei Verbum is quite clearly speaking of the Word of God in the secondary sense–the apostolic proclamation about Christ the Living Word, handed down in both Scripture and the living Tradition of the Church.I don’t believe that Dei Verbum made clear that Scripture and not the Church is supreme. The Church is indeed the servant of the Word of God–the Living Word, made Flesh.
I’m not sure what gives you the idea that I disagree with this statement.The Church has authority in *interpretation *of Scripture, Contarini.
That the traditional usage of the word “authority” fits a text very well. There is therefore no incongruity in saying that Scripture is the final authority, at least in terms of medieval scholasticism. It is the classic text to which we resort to solve disputes. Of course there needs to be an interpreter. But any rhetoric putting the interpreter above the text contradicts both Vatican II and sound reason, since as I’ve said before if the interpreter is superior to the text you don’t need the text.Clearly, I have no idea what you’re trying to say. What in the world does the Middle Ages’ definition of authority have to do with our dialogue right now?
Then why repeat it, when it clearly is based on false statistics?You may find it silly. I find it obscene.
Sorry that I wasn’t clear. I was not in fact talking about Catholics but about Protestants. My point was that division does not arise from saying that Scripture is the final authority. Division arises from my (or rather Luther’s) saying “what *I *see in Scripture must be right, therefore if the Pope and the theologians of the major universities see something else in Scripture they are Antichrist and have perverted the Gospel.” Many Catholic apologists mistakenly think that they have to tear down the authority of Scripture in order to refute Protestantism. This just puts weapons into the hands of Protestants.Alright. But then we have no idea
No need to apologize. I had a conversation more than a year ago with two scholars from SPU (at the Wesleyan Theological Society conference) in which they seemed horrified that I used the word “normative” about Scripture. They insisted that I was misreading the second-century evidence and that the early Church did not develop a canon in response to Marcion. They made me feel very undereducated on this point, and I realized how much I read the early Church through Reformation lenses, even as I disagree with much of what the Reformers taught.Sorry no stinging intended.
I’d like to see evidence for this. You may be right. I bought a book on this subject at the WTS conference, after the conversation mentioned above, and promptly lost it. I need to get it again this summer and read it. I have read Gamble, *Books and Readers, *but it was a while ago.I believe the early Church viewed the canonized scriptures inspired, however it was not that other writings were not included in the canon because they did not possess the same inspiration.
Yes, and I’d like to see more on this.The key IMO is understanding how the early Church viewed inspiration.
But again, it would highly surprise me if early Christians thought that unorthodox texts could be inspired. Perhaps non-apostolic texts could be inspired in the sense that they were written too late to be canonical but were still recognized as inspired in some way (Hermas, for instance). And if by “Catholicity” you mean something like “universal acceptance by the Church” then I can certainly see how Christians in one part of the Christian world might consider a book inspired but non-canonical. But by definition that would mean that the Church *as a whole *did not consider it inspired.I also am not doubting that the writings that later were canonized did hold special authority obviously or why were they canonized compared to the others. I just don’t think it was the early Church view on inspiration that was the defining criteria. I will provide examples in my next post. This view does not lead to accepting non-inspired texts as canonical possibilities. It does however require additional criteria apart from inspiration for their eventual canonization. For example Apostolicity, Orthodoxy, Catholicity, etc.
Actually I thought that is what I said. But as Vatican II put it, the Church is the servant of the Word of God. In that sense one is “inferior.” But I don’t think I am pitting one against the other.On the contrary,your dichotomy is false. It cannot be an either/or but both/and. It is false to pit Scripture against the Church or vice versa or to assume one is inferior to the other.Both compliment each other.
I don’t have a misunderstanding. We are saying the same thing. You have a misunderstanding because you irrationally assume that I must be disagreeing with you and conforming to your stereotype of a “Protestant” (perhaps you have not talked to many Anglicans before?).That is where you have a profound misunderstanding. How can the church be over scripture when all its doctrines derive from Scripture,either explicitly or implicitly.
Why would I want to do that?By the way,care to show us where Scripture explicitly explains the three distince persons of the Blessed Trinity?
Quite true, the Church is very much the servent of the Eternal Word of God and is most certainly inferiour to it, as it is through that same Word the church her self and all of creation came to be.Actually I thought that is what I said. But as Vatican II put it, the Church is the servant of the Word of God. In that sense one is “inferior.” But I don’t think I am pitting one against the other.
how do you know when they are right and when they arent?Is there any reason a Protestant should not accept what the bishops did at those councils? Surely I can acknowledge the RCC as being right about some things without saying they’re right about everything? And in fact I think the RCC is right about most things, since we have more points of agreement than disagreement. But when they’re right, it’s because they’re right, not because they have more authority than any other Christian guided by the Holy Spirit, which is available to all Christians.
I don’t believe it is.Actually Dei Verbum is quite clearly speaking of the Word of God in the secondary sense–the apostolic proclamation about Christ the Living Word, handed down in both Scripture and the living Tradition of the Church.
Now you’re creating a false dichotomy, Contarini. No Catholic here has been arguing that the Church is superior to Scripture. Only that it has the authority to interpret it.But the Church’s servanthood with respect to both modes of transmission of the Word is very clear. Any Catholic arguing that the Church is superior to Scripture is going against Vatican II.
The Church is not superior to Scripture. No one is saying that. The Church is its guardian and interpreter.The problem, from a Protestant perspective, is that Catholics in practice seem to have a lot of trouble distinguishing between Tradition and the Church, which means that the statement “Scripture and Tradition are both the Word of God” easily becomes “the Church is equal or even superior to Scripture.”
Well, I’m still not sure what your point is in all of this. It appears that we are agreed on most things, and it appears that you are arguing a point that no one has even made…and it appears you brought up some weird Middle Ages references that has nothing to do with the topic, except to provide us with an interesting but absolutely irrelevant etymology of the word “authority”.I’m not sure what gives you the idea that I disagree with this statement.
I don’t happen to believe it is based on false statistics.Then why repeat it, when it clearly is based on false statistics?
interestingI don’t happen to believe it is based on false statistics.
So, what’s the *actual *number of Christian denominations? Please cite your source.
I’d be happy to start quoting, “There are actually ________ Christian denominations”, if someone would just provide a source.
Right now, the only source I’ve found is this one, and it says we have 41,635 Christian denominations today.![]()
Ok. So minus 241 from the 41,000 statistic.interesting
this source labels 242 of these “denominations” as Roman Catholic.
I really don’t know theology all that much, but I do know numbers.Ok. So minus 241 from the 41,000 statistic.
Would you still then accept, “There are now over 40,000 Christian denominations”, each claiming that the HS led them to their truth.
So what’s the actual number of Christian denominations? Please cite your source.The appropriate math operator here would not be subtraction but division.
Remember that what this source did was to add to each base denomination a certain adder which is the number of countries.
In the case of the Catholic denomination that adder was 281.
But there are multiple base denomination.
So the net amount that the total number is over is (adder * number of base denominations).
So you have two choices:
(1) You can stop using that source entirely recognizing that what it considers a denomination really isn’t by your standard.
(2) Or if you want to use this source to estimate the number of Protestant denomination we would take the same adder (281) that was used for Protestant denominations and divide by it. In this case you would divide 40000/281. The answer is 142. I suspect this is low because the adder of 281 is high for most other Protestant denominations.
(3) The most accurate way would be to manually go to each base Protestant denomination and subtract the number of extras due to country (because I suspect the adder would differ by denomination). This would be the most accurate but of course would be painstaking.
What makes your argument ridiculous is when you keep citing the same number even after you have been told it is bogus. It only really discredits you. I would think that if there were such a thing as one true organization as the exclusive church of Jesus Christ, the least it could do is use numbers accurately and fairly represent the facts. You all just discredit yourselves using the 40000 figure and make you all look like snake oil sellers.
I don’t know.So what’s the actual number of Christian denominations? Please cite your source.
But the reason for that ridiculous 241 figure (I thought it was 238) is that the compilers count a separate “denomination” for the Catholic Church in each country. That means that instead of subtracting 241 from the figure, the figure should arguably be divided by 241. That would give us fewer than 200 denominations. The problem with that figure, of course, is that most Protestant groups are not represented in every country of the world, so perhaps we should divide by 100 or 50 instead.Ok. So minus 241 from the 41,000 statistic.
Would you still then accept, “There are now over 40,000 Christian denominations”, each claiming that the HS led them to their truth.
It has been pointed out over and over that the statistics in question count any church existing in more than one country as multiple “denominations,” leading to the conclusion that there are several hundred denominations in the Catholic Church alone. They’d have done much better to say that there are 23 denominations in the Catholic church, since sui juris churches are the Catholic equivalent of denominations.I don’t happen to believe it is based on false statistics.
I don’t believe it is.
Dei Verbum 2.10 said:: Sacred tradition and Sacred Scripture form one sacred deposit of the word of God, committed to the Church. . . . But the task of authentically interpreting the word of God, whether written or handed on, has been entrusted exclusively to the living teaching office of the Church, whose authority is exercised in the name of Jesus Christ. This teaching office is not above the word of God, but serves it, teaching only what has been handed on, listening to it devoutly, guarding it scrupulously and explaining it faithfully in accord with a divine commission and with the help of the Holy Spirit, it draws from this one deposit of faith everything which it presents for belief as divinely revealed.
Originally the claim (post 116) was that the Church has the *same *authority as Scripture. However, your post 131 appeared to say that the Church had greater authority. Apparently you didn’t mean this and were only arguing hypothetically, but I’m a little baffled by why you would do that. Furthermore, you and others have repeatedly argued that the Church is the “final authority” or “final arbiter,” in a context in which this authority of the Church seemed to be contrasted with the authority of Scripture itself.Now you’re creating a false dichotomy, Contarini. No Catholic here has been arguing that the Church is superior to Scripture.
And I’m not disputing that. I’m trying to argue with what you guys actually say. You seem to be arguing with what you think Protestants are supposed to say–ignoring the fact that many of us Anglicans are not Protestants theologically, at least in this respect (i.e., we believe in the authority of Sacred Tradition).Only that it has the authority to interpret it.
It’s not irrelevant at all, given your continual repetition of the phrase “the Church is the final authority or final arbiter.” The question is whether the Church, as the interpreter of Scripture, can itself be said to be subject to the authority of Scripture. You seem to dislike this language. I am arguing that it is well-grounded in the pre-Reformation Christian tradition. I am not denying the Church’s authority to interpret Scripture, and I am not even arguing that Scripture is the only means by which we have access to apostolic teaching.Well, I’m still not sure what your point is in all of this. It appears that we are agreed on most things, and it appears that you are arguing a point that no one has even made…and it appears you brought up some weird Middle Ages references that has nothing to do with the topic, except to provide us with an interesting but absolutely irrelevant etymology of the word “authority”.![]()
Edwin, how does this statement compare with Revelation:It seems pretty clear to me that all three references to the “word of God” are talking about the same thing–the apostolic proclamation which is preserved in both Scripture and Tradition.
Or how about John Chapter 1:Rev 19:11 And I saw heaven opened: and behold a white horse. And he that sat upon him was called faithful and true: and with justice doth he judge and fight.
Rev 19:12 And his eyes were as a flame of fire: and on his head were many diadems. And he had a name written, which no man knoweth but himself.
Rev 19:13 And he was clothed with a garment sprinkled with blood. And his name is called: THE WORD OF GOD.
Just trying to expand out to what the true Word of God is, ultimtatly it is nothing less than Jesus Christ. It speaks to us, in a way we can understand in many ways. Through the Scriptures, through Tradition or just through the Holy Spirit directly to one in spiritual need.oh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word: and the Word was with God: and the Word was God.
Joh 1:2 The same was in the beginning with God.
Joh 1:3 All things were made by him: and without him was made nothing that was made.
…
Joh 1:14 And the Word was made flesh and dwelt among us (and we saw his glory, the glory as it were of the only begotten of the Father), full of grace and truth.
I’m not disputing that the Word of God primarily refers to Christ. I am pointing out the specific way in which Dei Verbum uses it–to refer to the deposit of faith preserved in both Scripture and Tradition. And the Church serves the Word of God (as so defined) whether found in Scripture or Tradition.Edwin, how does this statement compare with Revelation: