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Usbek_de_Perse
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Given that St. Luke was not present when the Angel Gabriel visited the Holy Virgin, how do we know what words she spoke when this occurred?
Inasmuch as many have undertaken to compile a narrative of the things that have been accomplished among us, just as those who from the beginning were eyewitnesses and ministers of the word have delivered them to us, it seemed good to me also, having followed all things closely for some time past, to write an orderly account for you, most excellent Theophilus, that you may have certainty concerning the things you have been taught.
(Luke 1:1-4 ESV)
Because she is the only one who could speak it; exactly how it was transmitted to St. Luke’s gospel may or may not be exactly known to all, but as I’m sure you’ve already considered it is what she said that is all important, not how the saint knew of it to write it down.Given that St. Luke was not present when the Angel Gabriel visited the Holy Virgin, how do we know what words she spoke when this occurred?
Errrr Mary is a Jewish girl so why wouldn’t she know her Jewish scriptures??The writer of the Gospel of Luke wrote the Magnificat based on Hannah’s song…he used her song as the basis for Mary’s as “midrash”. Did Mary actually recite the words he used? I doubt it…since the magnificat is based on the Jewish scriptures.
Of course the guidence of your particular faith community should be considered.
The writer of “Luke’s” gospel used the Jewish scriptures to frame his version and story of the life of Christ. The writer of the gospel used Hannah’s song as the basis for the magnificat…he used his “literary license” and had Mary “speak” the words. His gospel was written for evangelistic purposes…it is not a 100% accurate historical account…it is based on “midrash”…not historical facts.Errrr Mary is a Jewish girl so why wouldn’t she know her Jewish scriptures??
While the Bible is not always to be taken “literally”, it is always to be taken in the sense in which the original author intended it, since whatever the Bible actually asserts as true is true. Therefore we have to ask, does Luke assert that Mary said this prayer? In my private opinion I think the answer is clearly yes, though it is less clear whether she had herself composed the prayer, or whether she actually said the prayer spontaneously and immediately after Elizabeth’s words.The writer of “Luke’s” gospel used the Jewish scriptures to frame his version and story of the life of Christ. The writer of the gospel used Hannah’s song as the basis for the magnificat…he used his “literary license” and had Mary “speak” the words. His gospel was written for evangelistic purposes…it is not a 100% accurate historical account…it is based on “midrash”…not historical facts.
Luke was not Jewish. He was Greek. Why would a Greek depend on the midrash when he could have asked Mary directly since she was alive and accessible? From the details in Luke’s account it is obvious he got his account straight from her and not by concocting any fictional material to fit the bill. Mary expressed herself as any Jewish woman who had listened to the OT readings would have done, just as a Catholic woman would be inclined to use Catholic expressions when giving thanks or praying. Many of the Psalms are written in the same sort of language as each other, as well. It’s only natural.The writer of “Luke’s” gospel used the Jewish scriptures to frame his version and story of the life of Christ. The writer of the gospel used Hannah’s song as the basis for the magnificat…he used his “literary license” and had Mary “speak” the words. His gospel was written for evangelistic purposes…it is not a 100% accurate historical account…it is based on “midrash”…not historical facts.
I don’t see why not in this case. The opening sentence easily sets the tone and basis of the writing. What we are warned against is proving inspiration of Scripture with Scripture, but in this case we are only trying to establish literal accuracy. St. Luke is stating that he obtained data from eyewitnesses. He is in essence, stating his research methodology. This is completely valid as it would be for any modern thesis or dissertation.This does not answer the question. And in any case, one does not quote from a book to prove it. Catholic apologists remind us of this when discussing sola scriptura.
Since the gospels were written either by “God fearers” of Greek stock or of the Diaspora Jews which had lost touch with Hebrew…they would have been very knowledgeable as they used the LXX concerning Jewish thought. Luke, Paul’s companion in Acts was not the writer of Luke…all the gospels were written anonymously…names were added at a later time.Luke was not Jewish. He was Greek. Why would a Greek depend on the midrash when he could have asked Mary directly since she was alive and accessible? From the details in Luke’s account it is obvious he got his account straight from her and not by concocting any fictional material to fit the bill. Mary expressed herself as any Jewish woman who had listened to the OT readings would have done, just as a Catholic woman would be inclined to use Catholic expressions when giving thanks or praying. Many of the Psalms are written in the same sort of language as each other, as well. It’s only natural.
We Catholics believe Mary spoke these words because there is no good evidence she didn’t apart from speculations based on the historical-critical method that may be helpful in some matters, but falls far short in others and should not be used by non-scholar lay people to dismiss matters of faith accepted for centuries by those who were much closer to the events Luke describes than we are.
You asked how we knew. If you believe in the testimony of sacred scripture, it answers the question you asked. If you don’t then it is not sufficient for you.This does not answer the question. And in any case, one does not quote from a book to prove it. Catholic apologists remind us of this when discussing sola scriptura.
There is a difference here . Catholic apologists ask you to show us where the protestant understanding is written in scripture since protestants only hold to scripture as their authority ( they claim) and no where in scripture do we find the words “sola scriptura” where as Catholics hold to sacred tradition , only part of which is recorded in scripture a teaching we DO find written in the scriptures themselves not once but several times.This does not answer the question. And in any case, one does not quote from a book to prove it. Catholic apologists remind us of this when discussing sola scriptura.
The Gospels were named by those who knew who wrote them. Period. Any claims to much later dates is pure speculation by “scholars” of the historical-critical method. I don’t subscribe to their findings since their methodology is seriously flawed in many areas, and not because I just want to have it “that way”. Not that you are saying that, but to stem anyone thinking that the case.Since the gospels were written either by “God fearers” of Greek stock or of the Diaspora Jews which had lost touch with Hebrew…they would have been very knowledgeable as they used the LXX concerning Jewish thought. Luke, Paul’s companion in Acts was not the writer of Luke…all the gospels were written anonymously…names were added at a later time.
And I follow it because Christ’s Church which he founded tells me so, and not because, once again, it makes me happy to do so for cultural reasons. I am a “convert” to the Catholic faith. I didn’t enter into it with blind eyes or without proper investigation/study. I believe it because it’s true not because I want to follow my faith tradition. Trust me, if it weren’t true I wouldn’t waste my faith on it. Truth matters–it matters more than life itself.I understand you believe Mary spoke the words…you must follow the teachings of your faith tradition…and if it declares she spoke these words…you must believe so.
The writer of “Luke’s” gospel used the Jewish scriptures to frame his version and story of the life of Christ. The writer of the gospel used Hannah’s song as the basis for the magnificat…he used his “literary license” and had Mary “speak” the words. His gospel was written for evangelistic purposes…it is not a 100% accurate historical account…it is based on “midrash”…not historical facts.
What source(s) can you cite, other than personal opinion, or the opinion of others?Since the gospels were written either by “God fearers” of Greek stock or of the Diaspora Jews which had lost touch with Hebrew…they would have been very knowledgeable as they used the LXX concerning Jewish thought. Luke, Paul’s companion in Acts was not the writer of Luke…all the gospels were written anonymously…names were added at a later time.
I understand you believe Mary spoke the words…you must follow the teachings of your faith tradition…and if it declares she spoke these words…you must believe so.