Please can someone explain to me that if a papal bull is given and the consequences are horrible, what does this say about papal infalibility (when issuing a bull)?
byrdele
Hi Byrdele,
I’ll try to give a response based upon my understanding of the points you raise in your posting. Of course, this is a diffcult medium to adequately address them completely. Dave Armstrong’s website gives a more complete discussion of them with, typically, many references for further investigation.
Papal infallibility is often confused with Papal impeccability. Impeccability is freedom from sin, which is
not the case with the Pope. It was the habit of JP II to go to weekly confession (as is the habit of Benedict XVI) - presumably because like all of us they are in need of this sacrament. Papal infallibility refers only to when the Pope teaches, explicitly as the leader of the Church in union with his brother Bishops, on a question of Faith or Morals. I am recalling this definition of Papal infallibility from memory so it is likely there is a more technical and precise definition in, for example, the CCC.
So the correctness (or otherwise) of a Papal action (or inaction) on an issue other than one of Faith or Morals does not bear on Papal infallibility. With this in mind the issuing of Papal Bull’s (or “charters”) for Crusades (which I believe was true for at least the early ones) doesn’t involve Papal infallibility.
As for the Crusades themselves, I would suggest that we consider them in some historical context. Recall that Islam was being vigorously spread by the sword during this time: Muslim armies conqured Spain (from North Africa) in the early 700’s and crossed the Pyrenee’s in to France before being defeated and finally pushed out of Spain in the 1400’s. As late as 1683 Muslim armies attacked Vienna. And this is to say nothing of the complete Muslim conquest of and often forceable conversion of the existing Christian population to Islam in all the lands of the former eastern part of the Roman empire and beyond. So from this viewpoint, military expeditions to reclaim Christianity’s Holiest sites from their relatively recent military conquest by Muslim’s has some logic. The later Crusades were not as nearly true to their intended purpose as the earlier ones, some of which were out right disasters resulting in just grievances from the Orthodox. But just like the Pope is not impeccable, he is not omniscent - so ascribing the sins of Crusaders to the Pope for his lack of all-knowing foresight at the very least does not involve Papal infallibility.
The history of the Inquisition is another subject on which I’d very much like to comment but doing so I think will take this post too far off-topic. Suffice it to say that the history of the Inquisition, like the Crusades, has been distorted in the popular imagination.
As for the Pope supposedly thrown in to the Tiber because he was so hated I have not heard of this before so please provide a reference. In any case, as can be hopefully seen by now, whatever any given Pope may (or may not) have done while in office, when discussing Papal infallibility the only question is “Did he teach, in union with his brother Bishops as the head of the RC, on a question of Faith and Morals ?”. My reading on this subject indicates to me that even the “worst” Popes can not be shown to have taught falsely on a question of Faith and Morals.