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lemerjoe
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Why did the specific books in the Bible get in? Was there some sort of criteria used to decide which books where cannon and which were not? How do we know that other texts aren’t cannon and vice versa?
The short answer is that we know because the Catholic Church, guided by the Holy Spirit, has infallibly defined the canonical books.
Oddly enough, the Jehovah’s Witness Corporation gives complete credibility to the Catholic Church’s selection of Gospels (no copy of which is written by the original author) in the April, 2012 pulp fiction edition of Watchtower. They offer their take on the apocryphal and Gnostic gospels and state clearly that there has never been a question of the authenticity of the four canonical Gospels. Thank you very much, Arian brothers and sisters!PaulfromIowa’s answer is ultimately the correct one.
But to get a window on some of the signs that alert the Church of the Spirit’s truth, I think this quote from Augustine is worthwhile:Now, in regard to the canonical Scriptures, he must follow the judgment of the greater number of Catholic churches; and among these, of course, a high place must be given to such as have been thought worthy to be the seat of an apostle and to receive epistles. Accordingly, among the canonical Scriptures he will judge according to the following standard: to prefer those that are received by all the Catholic churches to those which some do not receive. Among those, again, which are not received by all, he will prefer such as have the sanction of the greater number and those of greater authority, to such as are held by the smaller number and those of less authority. If, however, he shall find that some books are held by the greater number of churches, and others by the churches of greater authority (though this is not a very likely thing to happen), I think that in such a case the authority on the two sides is to be looked upon as equal. (Augustine, On Christian Doctrine, II.12)
There is a good introduction to the process here. The really short version is that the OT is the Scriptures which Jews were using in the first century, and the NT is the Scriptures which the early Church decided were authentic and orthodox. Some of the unorthodox ones have some truly wacky stuff in them, whereas others looked pretty much okay but were attributed to people who could not possibly have written them.Why did the specific books in the Bible get in? Was there some sort of criteria used to decide which books where cannon and which were not? How do we know that other texts aren’t cannon and vice versa?
This is THE answer. Everything else is just academic squabbling.The short answer is that we know because the Catholic Church, guided by the Holy Spirit, has infallibly defined the canonical books.
I would feel better about that had they not altered the text of the original four…Oddly enough, the Jehovah’s Witness Corporation gives complete credibility to the Catholic Church’s selection of Gospels (no copy of which is written by the original author) in the April, 2012 pulp fiction edition of Watchtower. They offer their take on the apocryphal and Gnostic gospels and state clearly that there has never been a question of the authenticity of the four canonical Gospels. Thank you very much, Arian brothers and sisters!![]()
Yet, they had only one source to go to for their “raw material.” They, to put it succinctly, are in a jam when it comes to explaining the origin of the canon.I would feel better about that had they not altered the text of the original four…
As an historian myself, I can tell you that we know quite a lot about the selection process. It worked like this. Most books could be grouped into a few categories:Why did the specific books in the Bible get in? Was there some sort of criteria used to decide which books where cannon and which were not? How do we know that other texts aren’t cannon and vice versa?
Ok I read all that I could stand of that link… It’s full of twists, half truths and “out and out” (as my mother-in-law would say) lies.There is a good introduction to the process here. The really short version is that the OT is the Scriptures which Jews were using in the first century, and the NT is the Scriptures which the early Church decided were authentic and orthodox. Some of the unorthodox ones have some truly wacky stuff in them, whereas others looked pretty much okay but were attributed to people who could not possibly have written them.

No. This assertion gets repeated very often, but to shamelessly quote myself:The Sadduces were “Sola Pentateuch” subscribers.
It is ‘generally believed’, yes, but this ‘general belief’ has, as I mentioned, gone into some questioning recently. Josephus was once cited as proof for this idea, but what he actually says is (Antiquities 13.297 [10.6]):
περὶ μέντοι τούτων αὖθις ἐροῦμεν. νῦν δὲ δηλῶσαι βούλομαι, ὅτι νόμιμά τινα παρέδοσαν τῷ δήμῳ οἱ Φαρισαῖοι ἐκ πατέρων διαδοχῆς, ἅπερ οὐκ ἀναγέγραπται ἐν τοῖς Μωυσέως νόμοις, καὶ διὰ τοῦτο ταῦτα τὸ Σαδδουκαίων γένος ἐκβάλλει, λέγον ἐκεῖνα δεῖν ἡγεῖσθαι νόμιμα τὰ γεγραμμένα, τὰ δ᾽ ἐκ παραδόσεως τῶν πατέρων μὴ τηρεῖν.
What I would now explain is this, that the Pharisees have delivered to the people a great many observances by succession from their fathers, which are not written in the laws of Moses; and for that reason it is that the Sadducees reject them, and say that we are to esteem those observances to be obligatory which are in the written word, but are not to observe what are derived from the tradition of our forefathers.
It doesn’t say anything about canons of Scripture, but Sadducees rejecting Pharisaic traditions.
Some later Church Fathers (Hippolytus, Refutation of all Heresies 9.24; Origen, Contra Celsum 1.49; St. Jerome, Commentary on Matthew 22:31f.) did claim that the Sadducees accepted only the Torah as canonical, but this is a matter contemporary sources - that is, the New Testament or even Josephus - does not say anything (though admittedly, this is an argument from silence), and as a consequence, there are folks who advise against uncritical use of these sources.
I quote from The Law and the Prophets: A Study in Old Testament Canon Formation by Stephen B. Chapman:
The evidence that the Sadducees did not accept the prophetic books has long rested upon meager references by Origen and Jerome (Origen, Against Celsus, 1.49; Jerome, Commentary on Matthew, on 22:31), the nature of which might just as well indicate a later confusion (second or third century A.D.) of the Sadducees with the Samaritans (For references, LeMoyne, Sadducéen, 142-44. Cf. Sundberg, Church 77-78. The confusion may have arisen from the actual fusion of these two groups in this period).
Building on the work of J. Maier (J. Maier, Auseinandersetzung), Carr has concluded that despite this possible confusion, and the complete absence of any confirmatory evidence in the writings of Josephus, early Mishnaic regulations indicate that priestly circles including the Sadducees ‘revered the Torah alone.’ (Carr, Canonization, 36 n. 39. Carr terms this absence ‘conspicuous’, but explains it away as the consequence of Josephus’ own goal of presenting a unified Judaism with a single canon. Contra Carr, it would seem a rather weak point for Josephus to make if it was so patently untrue.)
However, it is clear in Josephus’ work that the issue of contention between the Pharisees and the Sadducees did not have to do with a different scriptural canon, but with the authority of oral law, which the Pharisees championed. (Josephus, Antiquities 18.16; cf. Antiquities 13.297. Carr admits this point (Canonization, 36 n. 39), which then provides another example of interpreting ‘the law’ too narrowly. Cf. the sound judgments of Beckwith, Formation, 74; and Bruce, Canon, 40-41.)
Thus, to argue that Josephus overlooked the disagreement between the two groups over the scriptural canon is also to argue that he created a controversy over the oral law where none existed, and that he retreated from his effort to present a unified Judaism in one instance, but not in the other. Surely it is more likely that Josephus simply meant what he said.
Jesus’ debated with the Sadducees concerning the resurrection and the afterlife is also cited as proof, since Jesus quotes from the Torah. However, one could argue Jesus using Exodus at this point does not seem to automatically mean they solely rely upon the Torah if we look at the history of Biblical interpretation: after all, later Jewish (Deuteronomy 32:39; cf. Talmud, Tractate Pesachim 68a; Sifre Deuteronomy 306) and Christian tradition used passages from the Pentateuch in support of the resurrection. Also note Jesus’ words: he does not criticize them for an ignorance of ‘Moses’ or the ‘Law’, but their misunderstanding of “the Scriptures [and] the power of God.” His answer possesses force not because it is from pentateuchal tradition, and therefore authoritative, but because it uses Scripture to ground a belief in resurrection in God’s own self, and thus makes resurrection an essenial tenet of a ‘Scriptural’ faith.
Correct! The codex was not attested until the 1st century BC.There is, however, a problem with the idea that they had “a standard canon and a standard version of each book in the canon.” On the contrary, Jews of the time had anything but. Quoting myself again: “I should warn about projecting modern ideas of a fixed, closed canon of Scripture at this time. While the Torah was held by every Jew to be authoritative and people already had pretty good guesses about the Prophets and a few Writings, the ‘canon’ (I’m using it in a loose sense here) was far from being closed: people could conceivably consider other books as authoritative (*deutero-*canonical) and question some books that were in this de facto ‘canon’.”
Josephus, for instance, says this in his work Against Apion (1.8):
For we have not an innumerable multitude of books among us, disagreeing from and contradicting one another, [as the Greeks have,] but only twenty-two books, which contain the records of all the past times; which are justly believed to be divine; and of them five belong to Moses, which contain his laws and the traditions of the origin of mankind till his death. This interval of time was little short of three thousand years; but as to the time from the death of Moses till the reign of Artaxerxes king of Persia, who reigned after Xerxes, the prophets, who were after Moses, wrote down what was done in their times in thirteen books. The remaining four books contain hymns to God, and precepts for the conduct of human life. It is true, our history hath been written since Artaxerxes very particularly, but hath not been esteemed of the like authority with the former by our forefathers, because there hath not been an exact succession of prophets since that time; and how firmly we have given credit to these books of our own nation is evident by what we do; for during so many ages as have already passed, no one has been so bold as either to add any thing to them, to take any thing from them, or to make any change in them; but it is become natural to all Jews immediately, and from their very birth, to esteem these books to contain Divine doctrines, and to persist in them, and, if occasion be willingly to die for them.
Josephus is our earliest reference to a ‘fixed’ collection of Jewish Scriptures. As per his reckoning, his ‘canon’ consisted of: (1) the Torah (Genesis to Deuteronomy); (2) the Prophets (Joshua, Judges-Ruth, Samuel, Kings, Isaiah, Jeremiah-Lamentations, Ezekiel, Minor Prophets, Job, Daniel, Chronicles, Ezra-Nehemiah, Esther); (3) the “four books”: Psalms, Proverbs, Ecclesiastes and the Song of Songs. This is almost identical (but at the same time, different) to the later rabbinic categorization of twenty-four books (counting Ruth and Lamentations separately from Judges and Jeremiah, respectively) into the tripartite category of Law-Prophets-Writings. There might also be a reference to the tradition of reckoning twenty-four (as opposed to Josephus’ twenty-two) books in a near-contemporary apocryphal work known as 2 Esdras (aka 4 Ezra):
And on the next day, behold, a voice called me, saying, “Ezra, open your mouth and drink what I give you to drink.” Then I opened my mouth, and behold, a full cup was offered to me; it was full of something like water, but its color was like fire. And I took it and drank; and when I had drunk it, my heart poured forth understanding, and wisdom increased in my breast, for my spirit retained its memory; and my mouth was opened, and was no longer closed. And the Most High gave understanding to the five men, and by turns they wrote what was dictated, in characters which they did not know. They sat forty days, and wrote during the daytime, and ate their bread at night. As for me, I spoke in the daytime and was not silent at night. So during the forty days ninety-four books were written.
And when the forty days were ended, the Most High spoke to me, saying, “Make public the twenty-four books that you wrote first and let the worthy and the unworthy read them; but keep the seventy that were written last, in order to give them to the wise among your people. For in them is the spring of understanding, the fountain of wisdom, and the river of knowledge.” And I did so.
The SHORT answer is BECAUSR THAT WAS AND REMAIND GOD’S DESIRE=lemerjoe;9884915]Why did the specific books in the Bible get in? Was there some sort of criteria used to decide which books where cannon and which were not? How do we know that other texts aren’t cannon and vice versa?
I am sorry, but, having read your accusation that he is lying, I could not then find how you justify such an extreme charge.Ok I read all that I could stand of that link… It’s full of twists, half truths and “out and out” (as my mother-in-law would say) lies.
One point made is that it was “easy” for the NT to be collected because everything was either “written by an apostle or by one of their closest friends”. And all the individual chuches had to do was to take the writtings from the apostles, hand them down faithfully to their decendants. Really? Where is that in the Bible?
Again, why should it be in the Bible??It also says that Hebrews was written by Paul… again where, chapter and verse please? That Mark was written by Mark… again, Chapter and verse.
Yet again, why should this be in the Bible???The ‘other’ books were ‘obvioiusly’ not written by an apostle or one of their ‘closest friends’. Where is it in Scripture the Clement (baptised by Peter, learned from Paul) is NOT one of some apostles friends. Or Polycarp of Smyrna - learned from John the Apostle… etc etc etc… Chapter and verse please.
The noun phrase “each congregation” and the adverb “independently”, each used only once, are all that I could find of this “big case” which you describe, and it is worth pointing out that he attributes this more particularly to “the grace of God”.Short of the Long of it, the first page I clicked on made a big case that it was “Individual churches” that decided on their own what books belonged in the NT
He gives a handy table of differences in inclusions and exclusions, and there is a link to that table given in that first essay.and (my paraphrase here) lo and behold they were “almost” identical… “except for a few minor exceptions” Yeah like “Letter of Hermes” “Letter of Clement to the Corinthians” both considered Scripture by many Christians. Or Hebrews, Revelations and others that were NOT considered Scripture by many Christians.
He never says that they did. In his “Reception of the Old Testament in Greek”, he notes that “It is inaccurate to talk about the Septuagint as a single book in apostolic days”, and makes three other comments, in that single, short section, upon the variations in the LXX’s collection of books.Also the paper passes over the whole OT as if it was just the canon of the Jews. The Jews had NO CANON.
This right here is the most important and the one criteria that has only one absolute conclusion. While there was a process and criteria used by the Church to decide, it was the Holy Spirit that guided that process to provide the canon, BECAUSE OF APOSTOLIC AUTHORITY. All the other means of deciding what is canonical is open for different conclusions because, just as we see among those who use the same Bible but come up with different doctrines that contradict each other, many can use the exact criteria to decide what they think is canonical but would end up with different (so-called) canons.The short answer is that we know because the Catholic Church, guided by the Holy Spirit, has infallibly defined the canonical books.
Sorry, I’m not going back to read any more of that. It’s an attempt to remove the Catholic Church and her authority from the canon of Scripture. It’s an unfortunate necessity for non-Catholic Christians to do when they start studying the history of the Bible.I am sorry, but, having read your accusation that he is lying, I could not then find how you justify such an extreme charge.
I am certainly not about to say that the first essay is perfect, especially when it deliberately simplifies matters for ease of reading, but that is what an introduction is meant to do.
Why should it be in the Bible?
It is in the Early Church commentaries on the canon-forming process, in the links which he provides, if you want to read it.
Again, why should it be in the Bible??
It’s in Origen, here. It’s one of the lists to which that first essay links.
Yet again, why should this be in the Bible???
He describes apostolic authorship as a justification for inclusion, and that is evident in Early Church discussions of the books. He does not go into detail regarding the process of exclusion.
The noun phrase “each congregation” and the adverb “independently”, each used only once, are all that I could find of this “big case” which you describe, and it is worth pointing out that he attributes this more particularly to “the grace of God”.
He gives a handy table of differences in inclusions and exclusions, and there is a link to that table given in that first essay.
He never says that they did. In his “Reception of the Old Testament in Greek”, he notes that “It is inaccurate to talk about the Septuagint as a single book in apostolic days”, and makes three other comments, in that single, short section, upon the variations in the LXX’s collection of books.
He gives another handy table of differences in inclusions and exclusions of OT books, again given in a link from that first essay.
What I find most peculiar here is that you arraign him for his simplifications, even going so far as to accuse him of dishonesty, and yet you yourself oversimplify what he is saying. Are you being dishonest? No. So how is he?
If you are reacting to his partisan-Protestant commentary about the Catholic Church, something which you have not mentioned, he certainly does show his prejudice there, but that does not make his collection of Early Church sources any less useful.
If you have some other introduction to which you would prefer people were directed, feel free to mention it.
And what evidence do you have of that? Perhaps they were edited–but is there evidence of a specific group that did the editing?I would feel better about that had they not altered the text of the original four [Gospels]…
I’d be curious as to who you are thinking is included in “we” since the orthodox churches have biblical canons that differ from the Latinate church. Just the West?If there was no Catholic Church heirarchy there would be no unified canon of the NT. If it wasn’t for Martin Luther, we would still have a unified canon of OT Scripture too.
If one was to look at all the citations of the early church fathers, that is, before the Nicene councils, one will see that all of the books of the OT and NT that we now have were quoted. Gnostic writings were not quoted by these early church fathers.Why did the specific books in the Bible get in? Was there some sort of criteria used to decide which books where cannon and which were not? How do we know that other texts aren’t cannon and vice versa?