How do we read Vatican II in the light of tradition that comes out of the Council of Trent?

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Trent11,

A simple search was rather easy to find your copy/paste on the wolves. Now to figure out which alias you have donned.

Did you think it would fly posting your articles from: ***Baptism of Desire, ***by Fr. Jean-Marc Rulleau (SSPX)? :eek:
 
Well I didn’t see any of those posts as contradictory to the quote that I brought up. Although that was kind of besides the point, the point was that you think it is a completely obvious and self-contradictory position, yet it is one that St. Thomas himself held, even if it were true that he later rejected it. I thought it ironic that you claimed that a position held by someone as brilliant as St. Thomas was an obivous contradiction. 🤷
So you are relying on a fallible man, who obviously either contradicted himself, if we appeal to the same Aristotelian thought (law of identity, excluded middle and non-contradiction) he appealed to, or switched his position? While I am relying on the infallibility of the Church, such as to St. Leo the Great’s infallible statement who said the effects of baptism cannot be separated from the baptism of water since they are indivisible? Interesting… I don’t really care how brilliant he was, he was fully capable of error as it was proven to be so that his Summa contained twenty four formal errors. If you subscribe to his thinking to the letter, you are going to be a lone island then my friend since there is no Thomistic camp existing today that does so.
I’m not here trying to prove one side or the other. I am honestly asking. No, your answer was not sufficient to eradicate any possibility that it was used at this occasion as it is normally used. Just because you have a handful of examples where it was used in an irregular manner does not mean that it is used in an irregular manner in any other particular case you choose to bring up. I find the fact that you have no other reason to hold that it is impossible that it was used the way it is supposed to be used very telling, it means that your opinion about this matter is in part based on the fact that you have already made your mind up, not because of an actual solid argument from the facts themselves.
I’m not sure if you’re understanding the Latin then. The only reason to use aut is to distinguish opposites (eg, A or B). You seem to be thinking that it is saying the effects of baptism applies to the one receiving baptism or the one desiring it. Aut here is only used to demonstrate that A, the one baptized, and B, the one desiring it, are two mutually exclusive referents. And it is not using “or” to state the effects of baptism applies to both referents if they were exclusive unto themselves, it is to collectively exhaust the genus of baptism of what is necessary to bring about the effect of baptism (since a baptism can be invalid to whom that does not desire it, as Pope Innocent III decreed that intent is necessary for a valid baptism). This is why I said vel would better your interpretation, if the effect is actualized in both referents but then again they would not be truly mutually exclusive but carry a nominal distinction. Let’s use an example to help:

“The light in my lamp will go out if I do not have electric power or light-bulbs.” Both are necessary to carry out the desired effect, both are mutually exclusive as referents and the genus to generate artificial light is collectively exhaustive since we have a light-bulb, a lamp and electricity. To the reason why ‘or’ was used interchangeably ‘and’ is of no consequence to the intelligence of the writer or to the effect of the decree since it has been done, uncommonly, else where and the proper interpretation can be drawn from the text when contexts is observed. Such as observing the Canons on Baptism & “as it it written” in Sess. 6, Chap. 4 or once again the infallible quote of Pope Leo the Great.
Trent11,

A simple search was rather easy to find your copy/paste on the wolves. Now to figure out which alias you have donned.

Did you think it would fly posting your articles from: ***Baptism of Desire, ***by Fr. Jean-Marc Rulleau (SSPX)? :eek:
Never heard of him, will certainly read what he had to say. Thank you for the reference.

Back to the subject, do you have a rebuttal?
 
So you are relying on a fallible man, who obviously either contradicted himself, if we appeal to the same Aristotelian thought (law of identity, excluded middle and non-contradiction) he appealed to, or switched his position? While I am relying on the infallibility of the Church, such as to St. Leo the Great’s infallible statement who said the effects of baptism cannot be separated from the baptism of water since they are indivisible? Interesting… I don’t really care how brilliant he was, he was fully capable of error as it was proven to be so that his Summa contained twenty four formal errors. If you subscribe to his thinking to the letter, you are going to be a lone island then my friend since there is no Thomistic camp existing today that does so.
Wow, so you are still assuming that I am just trying to push one side or the other of this debate. I am not relying on anyone to push an opinion forward as true. I think its ridiculous that you are carrying on about my comment on St. Thomas the way that you are. I meant it in a pretty lighthearted manner actually, to help point out the extreme position you put forward that implicit baptism by desire is obviously self-contradictory. I really don’t know why in the world you are harping on about it. 🤷
I’m not sure if you’re understanding the Latin then. The only reason to use aut is to distinguish opposites (eg, A or B). You seem to be thinking that it is saying the effects of baptism applies to the one receiving baptism or the one desiring it. Aut here is only used to demonstrate that A, the one baptized, and B, the one desiring it, are two mutually exclusive referents. And it is not using “or” to state the effects of baptism applies to both referents if they were exclusive unto themselves, it is to collectively exhaust the genus of baptism of what is necessary to bring about the effect of baptism (since a baptism can be invalid to whom that does not desire it, as Pope Innocent III decreed that intent is necessary for a valid baptism). This is why I said vel would better your interpretation, if the effect is actualized in both referents but then again they would not be truly mutually exclusive but carry a nominal distinction. Let’s use an example to help:

“The light in my lamp will go out if I do not have electric power or light-bulbs.” Both are necessary to carry out the desired effect, both are mutually exclusive as referents and the genus to generate artificial light is collectively exhaustive since we have a light-bulb, a lamp and electricity. To the reason why ‘or’ was used interchangeably ‘and’ is of no consequence to the intelligence of the writer or to the effect of the decree since the proper interpretation can be drawn from the text when contexts is observed. Such as observing the Canons on Baptism & “as it it written” in Sess. 6, Chap. 4 or once again the infallible quote of Pope Leo the Great.
Would you care to give sources to your claim that this is the only way that Aut is used?
 
Thanks for the recommendation Jason. I may have to get a copy.

EDIT: btw, I know of Fr Hardon from his articles on the Real Presence site.
therealpresence.org/archives/archives.htm
Yep. That site is excellent. I haven’t read much from there but what I have seen so far is definitely worth it. We need more men like Fr. Hardon in our time, that’s for sure!

I think you will enjoy the Catechism, should you pick it up. They even have a kindle version.
 
An excellent example of an ad hominem argument. Against a priest, no less :rolleyes:
I had seen this posted here at CAF several times, and the argument is always repeated verbatim - copy and paste. Wherever Trent11 obtained it, if (s)he is not actually one of the sock posters himself, the original was written by an SSPX priest, and his arguments would be considered questionable, at best, since the SSPX are not in union with the Church.

Note, please - the so-called “ad hominem” is not against the person of the priest, but against the logic.

forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=6078575&postcount=74

I will address some of this in a follow-up rebuttal.
 
I had seen this posted here at CAF several times, and the argument is always repeated verbatim - copy and paste. Wherever Trent11 obtained it, if (s)he is not actually one of the sock posters himself, the original was written by an SSPX priest, and **his arguments would be considered questionable, at best, since the SSPX are not in union with the Church. **

Note, please - the so-called “ad hominem” is not against the person of the priest, but against the logic.

forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=6078575&postcount=74

I will address some of this in a follow-up rebuttal.
Deny it all you like, that is an ad hominem. You’re invalidating his argument on the basis of a personal characteristic. This is really basic stuff. Not to mention that your claim of the SSPX not being in union with the Church is patently false.

Address the arguments he makes, not the man. Even if he is as misguided as you seem to think, it doesn’t follow that everything he says is wrong.
 
Deny it all you like, that is an ad hominem. You’re invalidating his argument on the basis of a personal characteristic. This is really basic stuff.
Address the arguments he makes, not the man. Even if he is as misguided as you seem to think, it doesn’t follow that everything he says is wrong.
This is not at all unusual, and if it would settle you down a little, I’d be happy to provide other examples where a person’s logic is identified by their affiliation with erroneous movements. Do you honestly believe, for instance, that anyone who disagreed with Fr. Feeney (including the Church) is rendering ad hominems when they discuss his logic? Please! He even carries the name “feeneyism.” And he, too, is a priest. :rolleyes:
Not to mention that your claim of the SSPX not being in union with the Church is patently false.
For a minute, I thought you were serious. 😛
 
This is not at all unusual, and if it would settle you down a little, I’d be happy to provide other examples where a person’s logic is identified by their affiliation with erroneous movements. Do you honestly believe, for instance, that anyone who disagreed with Fr. Feeney (including the Church) is rendering ad hominems when they discuss his logic? Please! He even carries the name “feeneyism.” And he, too, is a priest. :rolleyes:
Feeneyism is wrong based on an analysis of the arguments, not because it was proposed by Fr Feeney. You’re taking the opposite approach.
 
Wow, so you are still assuming that I am just trying to push one side or the other of this debate. I am not relying on anyone to push an opinion forward as true. I think its ridiculous that you are carrying on about my comment on St. Thomas the way that you are. I meant it in a pretty lighthearted manner actually, to help point out the extreme position you put forward that implicit baptism by desire is obviously self-contradictory. I really don’t know why in the world you are harping on about it. 🤷

Would you care to give sources to your claim that this is the only way that Aut is used?
Let me clarify, it is particularly this part I am thinking of
Aut here is only used to demonstrate that A, the one baptized, and B, the one desiring it, are two mutually exclusive referents. And it is not using “or” to state the effects of baptism applies to both referents if they were exclusive unto themselves
Also, if it were true that that is how it is meant to be interpreted why does everyone who translates it render such an ambiguous and misleading English translation as to use the English word ‘or’?

Also… do you then hold as infallible that baptized infants cannot attain salvation because they have not yet reached the sttage in their devleopment where they are capable of desiring the baptism they received?
 
I had seen this posted here at CAF several times, and the argument is always repeated verbatim - copy and paste. Wherever Trent11 obtained it, if (s)he is not actually one of the sock posters himself, the original was written by an SSPX priest, and his arguments would be considered questionable, at best, since the SSPX are not in union with the Church.

Note, please - the so-called “ad hominem” is not against the person of the priest, but against the logic.

forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=6078575&postcount=74

I will address some of this in a follow-up rebuttal.
I did some reading on him and the books he wrote. Contrary to what you think he actually defended desire & ignorance, not stand against them. I’m sorry but what am I to think of this misuse of this priest’s position in the debate? Please research what it is your proposing before posting it, I do not desire to do research for both sides of the debate.
 
I did some reading on him and the books he wrote. Contrary to what you think he actually defended desire & ignorance, not stand against them. I’m sorry but what am I to think of this misuse of this priest’s position in the debate? Please research what it is your proposing before posting it, I do not desire to do research for both sides of the debate.
Yes, I jumped the gun when I researched the “wolves” articles that have appeared so frequently on CAF with regard to this topic. I did come to realize you hold the position of this website that challenged St. Thomas’s writing. Does the Dimond Brothers of MostHolyFamilyMonastery’s rebuttal look familiar to you?
40.png
Trent11:
Dimond Brothers MHFM:
On page 39, Fr. Rulleau misquotes the crucial passage from the fourth chapter of the Council of Trent’s Decree on Justification: “and this translation after the promulgation of the Gospel cannot be effected except through
the laver of regeneration or a desire for it…” The Latin original of this passage from Trent does not translate to, “except through the laver of regeneration or a desire for it…” It translates to, “… without the laver of regeneration or a desire for it…”
Introducing “except through” in the place of “without” changes the entire meaning of the passage to favor baptism of desire (as shown in the Section on Sess. 6, Chap. 4 of the Council of Trent).

Mr. Akins is reading the mistranslated version of Denzinger on this text where he read and cited in his article: “cannot be effected except through the laver of regeneration or a desire for it…” Is actually “cannot take place without the laver of regeneration or a desire for it…” As the Latin used in the text is “sine” which translates as “without” not “except through”.
That would lead us to their sedevacantist’s teaching that the recent popes, Councils, teachings of the Church are errant and should be opposed. Is this the trajectory or conclusion your post was leading us to?

Dogmatic teaching must be understood in that sense in which the Church herself understands it. For, it was not to private judgments that Our Savior gave for explanation those things that are contained in the deposit of faith, but to the teaching authority of the Church. Pius XII

You are spinning lengthly webs of sophistry all around the formal teaching of the Church, using multiple classic arguments of radical traditionalists as Mr. Akin described in his article.

In your personal interpretation, you set your beliefs above the Magisterium, implying strongly that Church teaching today is absolutely in error, and therefore, the gates of hell have been permitted to prevail against Her.
So you are relying on a fallible man, [as you also do, in citing Ambrose and Augustine]
I’ll give the good Angelic Doctor the benefit of the doubt that he lacked these writings since these two Fathers were inconsistent with their own theological opinions.
I don’t really care how brilliant he was, he was fully capable of error as it was proven to be so that his Summa contained twenty four formal errors.
Indeed, none of these three canonized saints have the teaching authority of the Church to pronounce anything dogmatically or infallibly. Why are you holding their writings up as final authority that we should all listen to them and not the Church? Either Her present teaching is totally in error as you suggest, or you are not the infallible one you present yourself to be. Guess who we’ll follow, Trent11?
 
One more point, Trent11:

You have cited only a small area of your concern by misrepresenting the Council of Trent as justification for your teaching. However, the Church has never spoken in a vacuum with only a smidgeon of truth being presented to the faithful.

You will find many solid teachings to rebut your argument in the links below. Since we have entertained the lengthly posts you submitted, how about doing us a favor, and read the material below?

1 .http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost…&postcount=246
  1. http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost…&postcount=250
  2. http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost…&postcount=271
  3. http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost…&postcount=276
  4. http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost…&postcount=277
6 .http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost…&postcount=280

Lastly, there are no finer apologists than Mr. Akin, and when push goes to shove, it will not be your isolated posts that win the day. I have no doubt whatsoever that his research is thorough and absolutely solid in truth.
 
Deny it all you like, that is an ad hominem. You’re invalidating his argument on the basis of a personal characteristic. This is really basic stuff. Not to mention that your claim of the SSPX not being in union with the Church is patently false.

Address the arguments he makes, not the man. Even if he is as misguided as you seem to think, it doesn’t follow that everything he says is wrong.
I do not claim to be an expert in this area but if I may take a jab…

It is worth noting that St. Thomas presents a logically consistent position. However, a logically consistent position does not mean that it is true.

There is for an example on the question of reconciling Free-will with Providence the proposed positions such as Molinism, Thomism, position of W.G. Most, or the non-Catholic positions such as Calvinism. Nearly all these positions are internally consistent and can be made to fit all the data. However, we do not give assent based on this consistency.

So what do the faithful give assent to? The faithful give assent to the teaching of the Church. The Church has answered this question on invincible ignorance and clarified it to the entire church through its teaching magesterium. For us to then try and disagree with the teaching itself is therefore similar to a Protestant trying to argue what a passage means.

Therefore, the rebuttal against your position is that the analysis is neat and logically consistent but it is not worthy of assent since the Church has deemed it incorrect (or incomplete).

Also worth noting here is that your possible disagreements would lie in the practice that ensues from holding the Church position on invincible ignorance. After all, just knowing if a person is saved or not outside the faith does not get you to heaven. In this sense, I fail to see any change in the actions of the church with respect to interpreting invincible ignorance in the way Trent11 proposes or otherwise. The Church cannot presume to know who is invincibly ignorant. So it has to do its complete best to bring everyone in to communion with the Church.
 
One more point, Trent11:

You have cited only a small area of your concern by misrepresenting the Council of Trent as justification for your teaching. However, the Church has never spoken in a vacuum with only a smidgeon of truth being presented to the faithful.

You will find many solid teachings to rebut your argument in the links below. Since we have entertained the lengthly posts you submitted, how about doing us a favor, and read the material below?

1 .http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost…&postcount=246
  1. http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost…&postcount=250
  2. http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost…&postcount=271
  3. http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost…&postcount=276
  4. http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost…&postcount=277
6 .http://forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost…&postcount=280

Lastly, there are no finer apologists than Mr. Akin, and when push goes to shove, it will not be your isolated posts that win the day. I have no doubt whatsoever that his research is thorough and absolutely solid in truth.
Sirach, I appreciate your opinion on the matter of who you think is a great apologist. Mr. Akin (and Mr. Keating) do a fine job in many respects. But your opinion of him as an apologist is just that, your opinion. Mr. Akin is not infallible in his interpretations. His article, and you, have not addressed the fact (he doesn’t cite the quotes that Trent11 or myself have posted) that the Trent Canons clearly stipulate that baptism and the Spirit cannot be seperated. Not to mention the infallible quote from Pope St. Leo the Great that is quite clear on the subject.
 
(reducing your quotes to shorten character space per post)
Yes, I jumped the… Is this the trajectory or conclusion your post was leading us to?
That’s not exactly what the sedevacantists proclaim but that is another subject. I am simply presenting the facts and quotes of the Extraordinary Magisterium, where the argument comes from is of no consequence to the debate dealing with the facts. And no, the sedevacantist position is not the conclusion.
Dogmatic teaching must be understood…
Agreed, and the authority has spoken clearly and and unambiguously that the Sacrament of Baptism is absolutely necessary for salvation without exception. If you need the interpretations of Trent read in this light, I can quote you the Catechism of the Council of Trent if you’d like? It is more emphatic over this. But remember, Catechisms, theologians, even the Ordinary Magisterium, when it is speaking as the Authentic Magisterium, can error when it is not speaking in line with dogma and tradition.
You are spinning lengthly …
I simply present the facts my friend.
In your personal interpretation, …
That is what I am implying to you? Forgive me if it seems that way because that is not the case. As I said before, the Church can error, even when teaching non-dogmatically, when it is simply speaking as the Authentic Magisterium. Dose this mean the gates of Hell prevailed? Absolutely not, this sort of conclusion is simply poor ecclesiology and a defective understanding how the Magisterium works. And actually, this correct understanding of the Magisterium can work against the sedevacantist position and even the case SSPX presents since one can still give prudential assent to the present hierarchy and yet believe and preach contrary to what is in question without facing canonical consequences. Even Cardinal Brandmuller said as much that the things in question are non-binding doctrinal content that are up for theological debate and possible change.

Also it should be noted that Vatican II only bound the faithful to believe in certain things of which it said was binding. You will read this in Nota Praevia of Lumen Gentium.
Indeed, none of these three canonized saints…
You misread the reasons why I quoted the saints in question. I demonstrated that the two patristic Fathers St. Aquinas used to foundation his argument on desire was inconsistent because the same two made contrary statements else where. Not to use them as the final authority for dogma. I quote infallible statements of Popes and Councils for that, which have been avoided sadly.

It should be noted though that a number of saints and Popes have said repeatedly that we ought to make sure that our faith today is identical to the faith of our Fathers, the Early Church Fathers, for it were not than we would be of different religions. So quoting from patristic sources is quoting from authority in the Church’s eyes, you ought to read how many times Vat II quoted these such sources to defend and expound on certain subjects. And I will quote patristic sources to defend mine, how I am reading the infallible Canons of Trent and the other infallible sources. This will demonstrate to you that my position is at least free of heresy, least you say these saints of the Early Church believed in heresy, and a simple matter of theological debate:

Jurgens, The Faith of the Early Fathers, Vol. 2: 1012.
St. Gregory Nazianz, 381 AD: “Of those who fail to be baptized some are utterly animal and bestial, according to whether they are foolish or wicked. This, I think, they must add to their other sins, that they have no reverence for this gift, but regard it as any other gift, to be accepted if given them, or neglected if not given them. Others know and honor the gift; but they delay, some out of carelessness, some because of insatiable desire. Still others are not able to receive it, perhaps because of infancy, or some perfectly involuntary circumstance which prevents them from receiving the gift, even if they desire it…
“If you were able to judge a man who intends to commit murder, solely by his intention and without any act of murder, then you could likewise reckon as baptized one who desired Baptism, without having received Baptism. But, since you cannot do the former, how can you do the latter? I cannot see it. If you prefer, we will put it like this: if in your opinion desire has equal power with actual Baptism, then make the same judgment in regard to glory. You will then be satisfied to long for glory, as if that longing itself were glory. Do you suffer any damage by not attaining the actual glory, as long as you have a desire for it?”

St. John Chrysostom, Hom. in Io. 25, 3: “For the Catechumen is a stranger to the Faithful… One has Christ for his King; the other sin and the devil; the food of one is Christ, of the other, that meat which decays and perishes… Since then we have nothing in common, in what, tell me, shall we hold communion?… Let us then give diligence that we may become citizens of the city above… for if it should come to pass (which God forbid!) that through the sudden arrival of death we depart hence uninitiated, though we have ten thousand virtues, our portion will be none other than hell, and the venomous worm, and fire unquenchable, and bonds indissoluble.”

Saint John Chrysostom, “The Consolation of Death,” Sunday Sermons of the Great Fathers, vol. IV, p. 363.
St. John Chrysostom, The Consolation of Death: “And plainly must we grieve for our own catechumens, should they, either through their own unbelief or through their own neglect, depart this life without the saving grace of baptism.”
 
One more point, Trent11:

You have cited only a small area of your concern by misrepresenting the Council of Trent as justification for your teaching. However, the Church has never spoken in a vacuum with only a smidgeon of truth being presented to the faithful.
I could cite other sources as well, not just from Trent, that are infallible statements that state these very same thing if you’d like? I was focusing on Trent since the article and post I originally was dealing with was concerning Trent.
You will find many solid teachings to rebut your argument in the links below. Since we have entertained the lengthly posts you submitted, how about doing us a favor, and read the material below?
You have? Show me that you have “entertained” my position to an honorable degree and I’ll give more of my time reading what your apologists have stated.
Wow, so you are still assuming that I am just trying to push one side or the other of this debate. I am not relying on anyone to push an opinion forward as true. I think its ridiculous that you are carrying on about my comment on St. Thomas the way that you are. I meant it in a pretty lighthearted manner actually, to help point out the extreme position you put forward that implicit baptism by desire is obviously self-contradictory. I really don’t know why in the world you are harping on about it. 🤷
Ca you demonstrate otherwise through any syllogistic argument?
Would you care to give sources to your claim that this is the only way that Aut is used?
I stated in my first post that to confirm this, contact a Latin scholar as they tell you that though it is uncommon, aut can be used as ‘and’ with a contextual observation. But as well, did you read the lexicon I quoted? It demonstrates that desire and baptism are mutually exclusive, the contextual observation makes them both collectively necessary. As well, you did not deal with the other instances when aut was used as ‘and’ else where in the Council.
 
Trent 11

Sorry…

When I saw the length of your posts, I knew better NOT read your rebuttal.

Mosts assuredly it will be another spin on why the Church is wrong in her present teaching and that the only valid belief for a Catholic is to cling to older papal documents.

That puts you outside of communion with the Church, and outside obedience to her Divine Authority to bind and loose.

And scripture tells me what to do in this case.

Good day.
 
Sirach2, you have no right to excommunicate fellow Catholics (not even the newer documents give you that authority). Shame on you.
 
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