say that you think a candidate will both end abortion and possibly fight a war with china. Are you to not vote for him/her based on hypotheticals?
Even so, a lot of human action is action in a world of uncertainty -I might know that putting my fingers to the keyboard would produce writing but I don’t know if a meteor might cut my existence short yet I still go on typing -hypotheticals can’t stop our action. Yet things that probably might happen often stop our actions (I’ll stop typing since it is likely that I’ll be called to wash the car) -so at the same time hypothetical considerations could stop our actions.
Now that my initial thoughts have been put down, I also want to ask, in connection w/the above, for the principle of double effect -should we worry whether the immediate consequences, and/or far-off consequences of the action we will take is good? That is, if a isn’t intrinsically evil and it causes b and b is an evil not disproportionate to the reason for doing a, but b further causes c which is disproportionate to the reasons of a, then should we reject a?
Thanks a bunch
TO: fakename – Original Poster ( OP ),
From JAW642 on 03/23/2011
Reply # 02 by LeafByNiggle is a very good answer.
We are morally responsible for the PROBABLE consequences of the actions we take. And not for the POSSIBLE consequences.
PROBABLE consequences meaning what most likely or very likely, will immediately result from Action A.
There could be thousands of different POSSIBLE consequences which could or might result from Action A, but only a few that are PROBABLE ( or very likely ) to occur.
If Action A is not intrinsically evil, in and of itself, and you know that it will PROBABLY ( or very likely ) cause Result B to occur, which if done separately and deliberately normally could be considered bad or not very good, then you are still morally allowed to perform Action A, as long as it is not your INTENTION that Result B will probably occur, but rather Result B happens pretty much automatically, which you do not have full control over.
You certainly do not need to worry about Result C and D and E etc., which Could be remote POSSIBLE consequences of Action A and Result B.
Example 1.
Pretty unlikely, but still possible. A young male is wrestling an opponent in a regional wrestling competition in front of a large audience. Perhaps the male has not masturbated in 3 or 4 days, or even a week. Even though the guy is not gay, he starts getting a full erection during the competition, simply due to the physical bodily contact between himself and his opponent. Or maybe the opponent, in a legal and legitimate maneuver, either unintentionally or deliberately to win the match, rests his hand or arm right over the guy’s erecting penis. The guy then realizes that he is about to cum, and so it happens. Hopefully, the guy is wearing a thick jock strap ! ] Because he lacked full control and full consent of his will, he is not guilty of masturbation, even though the ejaculation is every bit as pleasurable as when he ejaculates at night on his own. He does not need to stop in the middle of the match. He can knowingly and deliberately continue with the wrestling match, and he is allowed to permit his penis to ejaculate without any sin being committed on his part.
Here is what Father Farraher has written when he was talking about the application of the principle of the twofold effect.
Father Farraher also points out that sexual stimulation by a married couple is morally licit if it leads to natural vaginal intercourse or completes the marital act.'2 Farraher is very exact about what constitutes grave malice in masturbation when he writes: "for a person to be formally guilty of a mortal sin of masturbation his act must be a fully deliberate choice of what he fully realizes is seriously sinful."13 If such an act is done with only partial realization, or partial consent of the will, it is a venial sin; and “if there is no free choice of the will there is no guilt of sin at all even if the person is aware of what he is doing.”'4 Farraher goes on to point out that there is no sin even when a person foresees that sexual stimulation and orgasm will result from some action that the person is freely performing, provided that he does not intend such stimulation, but merely permits it, and that he has a sufficiently good reason for doing it. (This is simply an application of the principle of the twofold effect.)'5
Farraher corrects the misunderstanding that many Catholics have that if they experience sexual stimulation, however unwillingly, they have committed mortal sin.16
From JAW642 on 03/23/2011