A
ajpirc
Guest
Why is the Sacrament of Holy Orders valid in the Eastern Orthodox church but not in, say, the Lutheran church? They both seperated from the Catholic Church so why is one valid and not the other?
Basiclly the Orthodox retained apostolic succession, the protestants did not.Why is the Sacrament of Holy Orders valid in the Eastern Orthodox church but not in, say, the Lutheran church? They both seperated from the Catholic Church so why is one valid and not the other?
There is that, there is also the fact that most protestant denonimations do not believe in the Sacrament of Holy Orders so they did away with it.Was it because the Patriarch of Constantinople (I think) could ordain because he was a bishop but Luther couldn’t because he was a priest?
Non-Catholics are not bound by Catholic canon law, so licity in a Catholic sense is not an issue.Are Orthodox Bishops licitly ordained? They lack papal mandate and have no legal jurisdiction?
They have men (and women) that they call deacons, ministers/priests, and bishops.Also, I thought some Protestants had deacons, ministers (I don’t think they call them priests), and bishops?
So for it to be licit, it must be recognized as “legal” by the pope? I know it must be valid to be a sacrament, but why does it matter if it’s licit?Non-Catholics are not bound by Catholic canon law, so licity in a Catholic sense is not an issue.
Right.but for bishops to be selected(ordained?) it has to be from Pope right?So if there were no more bishops after last one died off no more priests could be ordained and they would run out,right?
For liceity, yes a bishop must have a papal mandate. However, for validity, he only needs one bishop to ordain him.but for bishops to be selected(ordained?) it has to be from Pope right?
For one to be licit, it must be in accordance with the law and the norms. Since the Orthodox are not bound by Catholic canons, then we cannot expect them to conform to it. In a way you can say that it is not licit from a Catholic perspective since we don’t consider their Sacraments to be “Catholic”. But its valid nonetheless.So for it to be licit, it must be recognized as “legal” by the pope? I know it must be valid to be a sacrament, but why does it matter if it’s licit?
I was told by a priest that once an ordained minister leaves the Catholic Church, they can no longer effect any of the Sacraments, except perhaps Baptism. Therefore, the idea that those bishops who joined Luther could still effect the Eucharist is false.Protestants do not have valid ordination because Luther changed the ordination rite which made it invalid. So after the bishops and priests that had joined Luther died out, they had no more priests & bishops with valid orders.
Any time any valid bishops left the catholic church, to join Luther, they could still confect a valid eucharist - but since they used Luther’s new form for ordination, the new “priests” they ordained would not have valid orders.
You only have part of the story.I was told by a priest that once an ordained minister leaves the Catholic Church, they can no longer effect any of the Sacraments, except perhaps Baptism. Therefore, the idea that those bishops who joined Luther could still effect the Eucharist is false.
How can they be valid if Lutherans, Angelicans, Episcopalians, and et cetera do not believe what the Catholic Church teaches about them, for example, Transubstantiation.You only have part of the story.
When a priest leaves the Church he is automatically suspended, that is he can not offer the sacraments in public. Any that he does are illicit (against the law of the Church) but are still valid.