Not to further complicate matters, but I shoud make one minor addition: If a couple has no legitimate reason not to have children, and they use NFP as a means of not having children, then this would be immoral. Refusing to have children for the sake of not having children is wrong *irrespective *of the method practiced.
I honestly don’t know. The meaning and presence of Christ in the Eucharist is a mystery to me.
I think it would do well to study and meditate on the nature of the Eucharist to better understand the Church’s position on the marital union. The whole of salvation history is about a marriage, about Christ leaving his father to become one with His bride, the Church, and the Eucharist is that consummating act of union between God and man. The physical and the spiritual are not two seperate realms of being; my soul is not seperate from my body. So to it is with Christ in the Eucharist. If Christ is truly present it is not in an abstract “spiritual” sense but in a true physical, tangible sense. Believe it or not, the Church still does have those same rules in place concerning the protection and care of the Eucharist. Its just that in the post-Vatican II Church, it has almost become commonplace for priests to become lax in their observance of them. But I digress…
…except the physical exchange of fluids.
If I was a bubble-boy, like John Travolta in an after-school special, and I went to kiss my bride through the bubble, would the only real difference between this kiss, and one in which our lips actually touch, be an exchange of fluids? There is a greater level of intimacy involved in an “unprotected” embrace and I don’t think it does the beauty of the sexual act justice to minimize the difference to an exchange of fluids. I hardly question your love for your bride, as it is quite apparent that you have a great affection for her. But, I think you should ask your bride which is more intimate for her? Women generally tend to place greater emphasis on this sort of intimacy than men do. I am a bit of an exception, I guess, but that’s probably because I’m just a wierdo.
Why does one method show respect for God and the other not? This is the sort of unqualified comment that I find so frustrating in all of this.
When you say that using condoms “imposes our will on God”, are you saying that cleverly avoiding fertile periods does not impose our will on God?
Is using drugs to cure TB an immoral imposition of our will on God’s? If doctors did not intervene in nature by artificial means, thousands would die every day… but if what you’re saying is true, then surely we should stop interfering?
I would suggest that God has given us brains, ingenuity, and conscience, and that we are called to be good, moral, loving stewards and masters of our nature, not slaves to it.
I’m actually glad you brought up advances in medical science. TB, the flu, or any disease for that matter, are contrary to the natural order of things. They cause death and take away life from us, to varying degrees. Because of the inherently “evil” nature of disease, it is thus appropriate to do what we can to fight them. Now, there can be certain ethical issue involved with this too, but that’s for another thread entirely. Bottom line, using medicine and technology to cure and prevent diseases is a *good *thing because diseases are *bad *things.
Apply this to pregnancy: A woman’s fertility is a *good *thing - and this
includes her period of infertility. There is nothing *bad *about a woman’s fertility cycles. As there is nothing wrong with fertility and woman’s fertility cycles, what legitimately warrants the use of science and technology to prevent or “cure” this condition as if it were a disease?
Furthermore, let’s suppose I have the flu and I have two choices for curing it: 1) take a medication that will kill the flu virus, but produce unwanted side-effects and possibly even death or 2) discipline myself by eating healthy, getting plenty of rest, and drinking a lot of water.
Which choice is the better option?
I know you’ve probably heard this before, but why is the divorce rate among Catholic couples who use contraception over 50% and the divorce rate for those who use NFP less than 2%? I’m doing my best to explain the reason why, but if you still have trouble, pray and meditate on that statistic: what is it about contraception that increases one’s odds of divorce?
Jesus said you shall know a tree by its fruit. NFP and contraception bear
entirely different fruit. Why? Furthermore, would it not be in our best interests to try that which minimizes one’s chance of divorce, even if we had no idea why?