michaelp: How do you interpret what mtr01 is saying? How can Scripture be sufficient when, in fact, it is available to a very very few members of the Early Church and then only in dribs and drabs and never as a comprehensible whole?
Moreover, how can Scripture be sufficient when it relies on COMMUNITY and on HISTORY for its interpretation? It is in the realm of INTERPRETATION that the theory of scriptural sufficiency falls down. There is no point in Scripture being sufficient if it then can be interpreted to mean just about anything the reader decides on.
Even the term ‘Sola Scriptura’ is not useful. Terms such as ‘Author Context’ or ‘Reader Context’ must be recognized as playing their parts in interpretation and understanding. Once you recognize the partnership of author, reader, and form (scriptural language), then you must recognize the existence of exegetical community. Once you recognize the existence of exegetical community then the real questions become
- What was the reason a text was written (then),
- What is the reason a text is read (now), and
- What is the reason for the formal characteristics of the text in its own right?
Now you are dealing with History and the question becomes ‘how long is History for you’? Are you bringing only your 21st century (presumably) western (presumably) middle class point of view to what you are reading? Or do you cede to the understandings of those readers who have gone before you? Particularly those whose readings have been formed by rigorous scholarship and lives of faith and who cede to the whole of (Christian) History, not to part of it.