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Genesis315
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Scripture isn’t necessary for salvation at all. If it were, none of the first generation Christians would have been saved, including the apostles.
Adherence doesn’t make it history.Then it must be interpreted ad infinitum.
But the point that we need to make here is that no one agrees whether the message of Scripture is sufficient for salvation.
If you say that it is not, then you definitely part with historic Christianity that the Orthodox and Protestants adhere to, that the regula fidei (tradition) is a summary of orthodoxy taken from what is now contained in Scripture.
:bigyikes: Good grief! You lost me there. Maybe it is late and I’m tired but how is sanctification connected to scriptural sufficiency? Can you break that down a little, because I did not follow you from premise to conclusion.If you do think that it is sufficient, then Rome is not needed since salvation includes sanctification.
I think it does address the question. Scripture lacks something which Tradition (Oral Teaching) has in abundance: people. God the Father is a person. The Holy Spirit is a person. Jesus is not only a person but a human person.The earliest Christians had many books from which they read in the observance of the liturgy of the word. Many of them are not considered canonical now (like the Didache, the letters of Clement, the Shepherd of Hermas, etc.) and some books that ARE considered canonical now were rejected by some Christians (like Revelation). The Church settled the matter of which of the writings were inspired by the Holy Spirit at Carthage. Now, if Catholic Church has the authority to infallibly tell the faithful which of the apostles’ memoirs, letters, etc, are canonical and the inspired word of God, then the question has to be asked: Which is more authoritative, the Church, or the Bible?
This is why the doctrine of scripture alone strikes me as so ridiculous. Anyone who believes that the Bible is the inspired and infallible word of God is indebted to the magisterium of the Catholic Church for that belief (whether they realize it or not). The Catholic Church is the reason why most of us are not quoting the Gospel of Thomas and the Apocolypse of Peter and the letters of Clement when defending our faith.
I realize this doesn’t exactly answer the question, but I think it’s important to consider when discussing whether the Scriptures are complete or sufficient.
God bless all of you and lead you into truth.
Ani Ibi said:Who decides on the interpretation?
In a world cut loose from the authoritative teaching of the Catholic Church, it seems everybody and his or her brother decides on the interpretation. And this in the name of ‘truth.’
But let us look at the term 'truth. What are people looking for when they say they only want the truth? And how is truth promoted? Often truth is promoted in the form of textual or conceptual ideas only. Concern is for whether someone or some text is telling the truth; relating something accurately.
The truth of the Catholic Church differs in that it is a ‘living’ truth; it is apprehended in the lives chosen by Her people and in the societies chosen by Her people. The supremacy of the individual may make a lot of sense on paper, but it inevitably devolves to who is top dog. This is not a question of accuracy but of power.
The Catholic appeal to the Magisterium is not so much an ascertainment of who is top dog, but an assurance to Her community that it will be preserved, not marginalized. This sort of truth enlarges the concerns of accuracy (particularly historical accuracy) to a concern to include and be of benefit to human experience.
There may be (as you suggest) disagreements among Catholics on this board. Catholics on this board indeed may be struggling to understand what is the greater good among themselves and in the company of non-Catholics. But this intellectual and spiritual rigour cannot be equated to that of the Magisterium. Just because some Catholics disagree on some points in some conservations does not mean that they disagree as one Church on principal points in the one conversation that counts: that of salvation.
There is a level to Catholic life which non-Catholics may not readily understand. And I think it is intuitive, not doctrinal. We debate all the time. But where we cannot agree or where we experience incomplete understanding, we cede to the authoritative teaching of the Church. And it is not because we are lukewarm and wishy washy. Consider that our Church contains every kind of society from closed, shame-centred societies to open, postmodern societies; every stripe of thinker from ultra-conservative to ultra-liberal. We cede to the authoritative teaching of the Church because we have far too much to lose by insisting that only one segment of our population is right. As I said, ‘truth’ for a Catholic is about community over concept.
Consider that Jesus did not say he possessed the truth; He said he is the truth. “…I am the way and the truth and the life.” (Jn14:6) This attribute of truth is personal not conceptual.
Michael, you talk of all texts being subject to interpretation. I agree with you on that. But I feel that we disagree on another aspect, and that is the scope of the interpretation that is open to us. Clearly we all interpret what we observe. We observe then we interpret. Our beliefs stem not from what we observe, but from how we interpret it. That much we agree upon (I assume).Then it must be interpreted ad infinitum.
You probably have a post somewhere else on this… …but how do you interpret passages in the Bible that say (paraphrased) “it ain’t all here” and “don’t interpret on your own–it’s dangerous…”? Doesn’t that prove that the Bible isn’t sufficient?Michael
- You fallibly interpret an infallible magisterium that interprets an infallible Scripture. I fallibly interpret an infallible Scripture.
- We both start in the same place and have to deal with the same problems. I just cut out the middle man in whom there no reason to place absolute trust and authority.
I have always thought it was interesting that the main text used to support the material sufficiency of scripture (2Tim 3:16-17) is preceded by another text, in a previous letter from the same person to the same person which says:You probably have a post somewhere else on this… …but how do you interpret passages in the Bible that say (paraphrased) “it ain’t all here” and “don’t interpret on your own–it’s dangerous…”? Doesn’t that prove that the Bible isn’t sufficient?
Scripture does not contradict Scripture. If the Church is the pillar of Truth, then Scripture cannot supplant it.But if I tarry long, that thou mayest know how thou oughtest to behave thyself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth. (1Tim 3:15)
It’s called apostolic succession, Michael. The magisterium means apostolic succession. So, if you deny the magesterium you deny everything from Jesus to the apostles to the disciples of the apostles to the disciples of the disciples of the apostles …etc. That’s why we are certain! We are not lost in a sea of skeptism, and for that, we thank the Lord. **Glory To Jesus Christ! Glory Forever! **Who is to say that your opinion is right?
If you say the Roman Catholic Church, that is still just an opinion.
Michael
Michael, I just ran across this as I was looking into another topic, and I wanted your opinion on it. You say that the Orthodox agree with the statement that Tradition is subject to Scripture, correct? If that is indeed what you believe, how do you reconcile this statement from an Orthodox source with your interpretation?That is right, but it also says that Tradition is subject to Scripture. This is the point of sola Scriptura. It is not a rejection of tradition at all. It is a statment of faith that says that all traditions are subject to the testimony of Scripture.
I do understand that you don’t believe this, but you cannot misrepresent this statement that is made by Anglicans and Orthodox. It is not meant to say that Roman Catholics would agree. Most would not agree with this statement.
Michael
It is pretty clear that the Orthodox view Scripture as a subset of Tradition, and that Tradition is not subject to Scripture, which is the Catholic view on the matter (as usual, it seems the difference between the Catholic and Orthodox position is an issue of semantics). I see this as being totally at odds with the Evangelical postion you are espousing.The Church recognizes one and only one source of authority for Her faith and practice: the apostolic tradition. The Divine Scriptures are part - albeit the most important part - of that tradition.** To set Scriptures up as something over and apart from tradition is to have the tail wagging the dog.**
lasvegasorthodox.com/library/Orthodox_doctrine/Tradition_1.htm
**So, for the Protestant it is sufficient in what it [the Bible] contains, ie.knowledge pertaining to Christ. It is not sufficient in and of itself, but in what it contains.
**What it comes down to is this:
The Catholic Church started with examining the available texts, using the tools for lit crit expected of people schooled in lit crit. Yes, lit crit is a fallible mechanism.
The Catholic Church then proceeded to determine which assertions in those texts could plausibly be assumed to be historically accurate, using the tools for historical analysis expected of people schooled in history. Yes, historical analysis is a fallible mechanism.
Having ascertained that certain of those texts were historically accurate, the Catholic Church then “purely historically concluded that Jesus founded the Catholic Church. Because of His Resurrection we have reason to take seriously His claims concerning the Church, including its authority to teach in his name.”
One of the things that the Catholic Church teaches is that the Bible is ‘inspired.’
This teaching is **not** derived by means of circular reasoning. Circular reasoning would look like this: The Bible is inspired because the Church says that the Bible is inspired and the Church is infallible **AND** the Church is infallible because the Bible says that the Church is infallible and the Bible is inspired. In other words the final conclusion is a restatement of the initial finding.
The teaching of the Catholic Church is derived by means of spiral reasoning as follows: The Church ascertains that the Bible is historically accurate. The Bible tells us that the Church is infallible. The infallible Church tells us that the Bible is inspired. The final conclusion is **not** a restatement of the initial finding.
This being the case, then the Bible is **profitable** for salvation but **not sufficient** for salvation. Salvation is found in the Church which Jesus founded and its arena of influence.
You see, all info does have to be interpreted.
**We both start in the same place and have to deal with the same problems. I just cut out the middle man in whom there no reason to place absolute trust and authority.
**Your usage of the fallacies of circular reasoning and non sequitur are not applicable to my arguements.
**I think that you need to look up in a dictionary to be sure of what they mean.
I understand relativism as holding all truth to be relative.This is NOT relativism, which believes that there is no truth.
Relativism was a feature of Modernism if memory serves me. Pluralism was a feature of Postmodernism.For my views on Postmodernism
Hi Michael-Who decides on the interpretation? The same people that decide on the interpretation of your catechism and the Magisterium. Sometimes it is clear, sometimes it is tough and there are disagreements . . . hey, this thead itself shows that there are many disagreements among Roman Catholics on this issue. Those who “recognize his voice.”
Michael
Here we go again Michael! I don’t wanna get going on apples again, but you are truly comparing apples to oranges when you speak of “interpreting” the magisterium in the same manner that you “interpret” the Bible. Every time we have this discussion you choose obtuse topics to demosnstrate the inherent lack of clarity of the teachings of the Magisterium. It just isn’t true and I believe these examples will refute your logic above. Lets take some BASIC issues that Protestants can’t agree on and use the terms that you can find in, say, the CCC and see if there is any “interpretation” required. Ready?Ani Ibi,
I guess that we are “misinterpreting” each other!!! You see, all info does have to be interpreted.
What it comes down to is this:
Thanks, but I will stick with my method for now. Much more defendable. But to see the defense, you are going to have to look at the other threads, like it or not.
- You start with fallibility in yourselves. I start with fallibility in myself.
- You fallibly interpret an infallible magisterium that interprets an infallible Scripture. I fallibly interpret an infallible Scripture.
- We both start in the same place and have to deal with the same problems. I just cut out the middle man in whom there no reason to place absolute trust and authority.
Michael
Hey Phil,Here we go again Michael! I don’t wanna get going on apples again, but you are truly comparing apples to oranges when you speak of “interpreting” the magisterium in the same manner that you “interpret” the Bible. Every time we have this discussion you choose obtuse topics to demosnstrate the inherent lack of clarity of the teachings of the Magisterium. It just isn’t true and I believe these examples will refute your logic above. Lets take some BASIC issues that Protestants can’t agree on and use the terms that you can find in, say, the CCC and see if there is any “interpretation” required. Ready?
Q1. Is Sunday the Lord’s Day? A1. Yes
Q2. Is it a sin not to go to Church on Sunday? A2 Yes, unless you are sick or have a dispensation.
Q3. Is the Eucharist simply symbolic? A3. No
Q4. Is it proper to baptize infants? A4. Yes
Q5. Is abortion a sin? A5. Yes
Q6. Is it a sin to be gay? A6. No
Q7. Is it sinful to be actively gay? A7. Yes
Q8. Is it a sin to divorce? A8. Yes, unless you get an annulment first.
I could go on and on with simple questions(which Protestants will vary on) with simple answers that do not require interpretation. There is no “fallible interpretation” required. They are stated in the affirmative or negative. You are confusing DESCRIPTIVE terminology with AFFIRMATIVE terminology (I just made those terms up!) when you apply the concept of interpretation to all communication… There is no interpretation required with YES and NO. Even the Bible says so…Let your Yes be yes and your no be no…
Unfortunately, the Bible is unclear on some of these topics - like infant baptism - and so is the message from the Protestant community. This makes perfect sense: Protestant theology is a function of Scriptural interpretation. Any time the bible is less than perfectly clear we should expect to get mixed messages from the Protestant community. And this is exactly what we can observe readily in our own time.
So you can easily get a clear, absolutely authoritative message requiring NO INTERPRETATION from the Magisterium through a variety of channels, one of which is the CCC. This refutes your contention that we, as Catholics, “fallibly interpret an infallible magisterium that interprets an infallible Scripture” and therefore your “moral certainty” concept of being OK in your self acknowledged fallible interpretation of (Scripture) is a house of cards.
We still love you anyhow…
Phil
Got an email from him the other day. He seems to be doing OK . . . but I have not seen him around on the forum. Why?Hey- have you seen Pax (pete) around at all?