If Jesus had said to the Apostles, “only the Father and I forgives sins but I’m going to make an exception and give you that same authority” then there would not be any question.------- (A) Since Jesus did not say that, the question then is are all the other Scriptures that say ONLY God forgives sins wrong? -------
Hmmm…, but Matthew says that the Jews praised God for giving this power to forgive sins to MEN (in the healing of the paralytic).
In Leviticus 5 (see below), a person who commits a minor sin can take a sin offering to the priest, confess his sins, and what? His sins are forgiven. Now, I ask you, *Who *forgave that man’s sins?
God, through the holy priest. That pre-figured the priesthood of the New Covenant Church.
Also, doesn’t Jesus ask us to forgive other’s sin. The precedent is set for us to forgive the sins of others. But this doesn’t necessarily mean that God is forgiving us… UNTIL… Jesus gives that authority to MEN (whether or not you like the choice of words that Jesus used is rather irrelevant to me and to the Entire Christian Church from Her very infancy.
(B) Why does Jesus, himself, tell us to pray to the Father asking Him to forgive our sins?-------
Because we should do exactly that. When we approach the priest and forgive our sins, we are petitioning God to forgive our sins. It’s not an “either/or” proposition, my brother!
(C) Heb 9:22, Without the shedding of Blood there is no fogginess of sins"--------
I agree. What’s your point?
(D) In Acts 8:22, If Peter knew that he could forgive sins, why is he then telling Simon to repent perhaps GOD will forgive you. Since Simon asked to be prayed for which is a sign of repentance. Peter didn’t say, “Okay I’ll forgive you come aboard.” --------
Because Simon didn’t confess his sins. Did Simon say I will repent of my ways? I don’t see it, so I see no valid reason for Peter to say* “Okay I’ll forgive you come aboard.”
*
(E) John 20:23 also states the refusal of forgiveness. This verse very much parallels Mat18:18 ------
Correct!!! What an AWESOME authority for God to give to mortal men!!! Now, where did that authority go. Did Jesus explicitly give it only to the Apostles?
Also, you just pointed out yet another verse that “those Crazy Catholics” use to justify the dogma that we call the Sacrament of Reconciliation. You previously stated that we based in all on one verse.
(F) John 20:22 states that Jesus breathed on them to receive the Holy Spirit. Does that mean they received the Holy Spirit 3 times? At baptism, here and Pentecost? -------
Why, yes, they did. The Holy Spirit can (and is) given to us many, many times! Why is that hard to believe?
(G) The true meaning of some Scriptures compared to others is not very clear John 20:23 is one of them.------
I don’t understand your confusion. Jesus says, “
If YOU forgive someone… I’LL forgive them as well. BUT if YOU DON’T forgive them… I WON’T forgive them either”. I think your confusion is based less on what Jesus says, and more on how your pre-conceived beliefs are clouding Jesus’ rather clear choice of words.
Please look at how I interpreted Jesus’ words and tell me where I’m wrong.
(H) Nowhere, in the N.T. is there any record of people being confessed by priests. That ought to ring a bell???
Why? I don’t see the reason that it has to be validated in Acts or Paul’s Epistles. The Epistles written were most often used to correct an error in doctrine(s) among the various communities or to uphold the beliefs of Christians who are suffering from persecution. Corinthians and Thessalonians are examples of the former reason and Revelation and Mark are examples of the latter reason.
What was their method of forgiveness? In fact, the whole priesthood/altar system ended at the cross as evident by the ripping of the veil from top to bottom Mat 27:51------ ( I )
I don’t see where Matthew 27:52 says, “
and thus ended the whole priesthood/altar system”. Maybe your bible says that?
But what is the method of forgiveness? Why, it was prefigured in Leviticus:
5 then whoever is guilty in any of these cases shall confess the sin he has incurred, 6 and as his sin offering for the sin he has committed he shall bring to the LORD a female animal from the flock, a ewe lamb or a she-goat. The priest shall then make atonement for his sin. 7 "If, however, he cannot afford an animal of the flock, he shall bring to the LORD as the sin offering for his sin two turtledoves or two pigeons, one for a sin offering and the other for a holocaust. 8 He shall bring them to the priest, who shall offer the one for the sin offering first. Snapping its head loose at the neck, yet without breaking it off completely, 9 he shall sprinkle some of the blood of the sin offering against the side of the altar. The rest of the blood shall be squeezed out against the base of the altar. Such is the offering for sin. 10 The other bird shall be offered as a holocaust in the usual way. Thus the priest shall make atonement for the sin the man committed, and it will be forgiven.
You have a good point in your last question above. My question then to you, what am I to do, ignore all the other Scriptures.? The Bible can mean anything we desire with ONLY ONE verse. Mat 27:5 Judas went and hanged himself. Luke 10:37 Go do likewise. ED O.
As I hope I’ve demonstrated, Catholics are not guilty of this type of bible-ripping when they are asked to explain their doctrines and dogmas.