How to respond to jewish criticisms

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Also who did St. Stephen see while he was being stoned to death? He seemed to have no qualms that the Son of Man is of Majesty so how can it be that A Son Of Man cannot be trusted? Perhaps "a Son of Man is not the same as THE Son of Man. :hmmm:

MJ
The Son of Man is still a son of man. There’s really no way to get around that.
 
The Son of Man is still a son of man. There’s really no way to get around that.
Firstly you will agree its not trying to get around it. It is according to the Bible verse of Stephen 😉 in Acts 7:56

However, Im of the opinion perhaps “a son of Man” The son is in simple form. But as for Jesus, he is called The Son of Man. THIS is of whom Isaiah is stating of whom the spirit rests.

Thus by looking at Psalm 146 : 3-4

(A)Put not your trust in princes,
(B)in a son of man, in whom there is (C)no salvation.

Plus according to the Christian community Bible it states (B) in** mortal ** man, who cannot save

So, son of man is just a mortal man and not Jesus Christ who is The Son of Man where Salvation comes from.

MJ
 
Firstly you will agree its not trying to get around it. It is according to the Bible verse of Stephen 😉 in Acts 7:56

However, Im of the opinion perhaps “a son of Man” The son is in simple form. But as for Jesus, he is called The Son of Man. THIS is of whom Isaiah is stating of whom the spirit rests.

Thus by looking at Psalm 146 : 3-4

(A)Put not your trust in princes,
(B)in a son of man, in whom there is (C)no salvation.

Plus according to the Christian community Bible it states (B) in** mortal ** man, who cannot save

So, son of man is just a mortal man and not Jesus Christ who is The Son of Man where Salvation comes from.

MJ
MJ,
I just don’t think that answers the issue. I think the fact that you can find some translations that substitute “mortal” for “son of man” demonstrates that translators know it is problematic for the Christian message.

Yes, Jesus is the Son of God; but He is also fully man with “breath in his nostrils” and is called the Son of Man.

Anna
 
Firstly you will agree its not trying to get around it. It is according to the Bible verse of Stephen 😉 in Acts 7:56

However, Im of the opinion perhaps “a son of Man” The son is in simple form. But as for Jesus, he is called The Son of Man. THIS is of whom Isaiah is stating of whom the spirit rests.

Thus by looking at Psalm 146 : 3-4

(A)Put not your trust in princes,
(B)in a son of man, in whom there is (C)no salvation.

Plus according to the Christian community Bible it states (B) in** mortal ** man, who cannot save

So, son of man is just a mortal man and not Jesus Christ who is The Son of Man where Salvation comes from.

MJ
No man can be a god but since Jesus was a god he can be a man who was a god 🤷
 
Firstly you will agree its not trying to get around it. It is according to the Bible verse of Stephen 😉 in Acts 7:56

However, Im of the opinion perhaps “a son of Man” The son is in simple form. But as for Jesus, he is called The Son of Man. THIS is of whom Isaiah is stating of whom the spirit rests.

Thus by looking at Psalm 146 : 3-4

(A)Put not your trust in princes,
(B)in a son of man, in whom there is (C)no salvation.

Plus according to the Christian community Bible it states (B) in** mortal ** man, who cannot save

So, son of man is just a mortal man and not Jesus Christ who is The Son of Man where Salvation comes from.

MJ
JM,
Also to be considered is that in a number of translations, “mortal” is substituted for “son of man” in most of the OT passages; but not in the NT, where “son of man” is retained to refer to Christ. So, there isn’t a consistency in translation of mortal vs. son of man.

Anna
 
Firstly you will agree its not trying to get around it. It is according to the Bible verse of Stephen 😉 in Acts 7:56

However, Im of the opinion perhaps “a son of Man” The son is in simple form. But as for Jesus, he is called The Son of Man. THIS is of whom Isaiah is stating of whom the spirit rests.

Thus by looking at Psalm 146 : 3-4

(A)Put not your trust in princes,
(B)in a son of man, in whom there is (C)no salvation.

Plus according to the Christian community Bible it states (B) in** mortal ** man, who cannot save

So, son of man is just a mortal man and not Jesus Christ who is The Son of Man where Salvation comes from.

MJ
JM,
Also to be considered is that in a number of translations, a word such as “mortal” is substituted for “son of man” in most of the OT passages; but not in the NT, where “son of man” is retained to refer to Christ. So, there isn’t a consistency in translation of mortal vs. son of man.

See Catholic Bibles Blogspot, in which the RSV and NRSV are discussed.

See Common English Bible same website.

Anna
 
I would say
  1. Read Isaiah chapter 53, here are verses 3-9
    He is despised and rejected of men; a man of sorrows, and acquainted with grief: and we hid as it were our faces from him; he was despised, and we esteemed him not.
4 Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.

5 But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed.

6 All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.

7 He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth: he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth.

8 He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken.

9 And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth.
 
No one has answered this point.

**Why would God say we are not to put our trust in a son of man, in whom there is no salvation, when God would send His son, who would be called the Son of Man and accomplish our salvation? **

Psalm 146:3-4
As with the quotes regarding the phrase “I am not a man” seen earlier in this thread, context is everything. Those verses, such as Psalm 146:3-4, are telling us to put our faith in God and not on mortal man. That is, I shouldn’t put all my faith in my neighbor, my mayor, or the president of the USA, but should rest all on God. To try to apply this to Jesus - who is God, simply God the Son while taking on a humanity - is putting the emphasis on the wrong syllable, as they say.
 
I would say
  1. Read Isaiah chapter 53, here are verses 3-9. . . .
rafarose,

Isaiah Chapter 53 is included in the criticisms quoted by the OP. The meaning of this passage has been debated for many centuries.
. . .
C. SUFFERING SERVANT
Christianity claims that Isaiah chapter 53 refers to Jesus, as the “suffering servant.”

In actuality, Isaiah 53 directly follows the theme of chapter 52, describing the exile and redemption of the Jewish people. The prophecies are written in the singular form because the Jews (“Israel”) are regarded as one unit. The Torah is filled with examples of the Jewish nation referred to with a singular pronoun.

Ironically, Isaiah’s prophecies of persecution refer in part to the 11th century when Jews were tortured and killed by Crusaders who acted in the name of Jesus.

From where did these mistranslations stem? St. Gregory, 4th century Bishop of Nazianzus, wrote: “A little jargon is all that is necessary to impose on the people. The less they comprehend, the more they admire.”
For further reading on the “suffering servant”:
jewsforjudaism.org/ss"

What would be the Catholic response to these arguments.
(bold emphasis is mine):

Who is God’s Suffering Servant?* The Rabbinic Interpretation of Isaiah 53*
The broad consensus among Jewish, and even some Christian commentators, that the “servant” in Isaiah 52-53 refers to the nation of Israel is understandable. Isaiah 53, which is the fourth of four renowned Servant Songs, is umbilically connected to its preceding chapters. The “servant” in each of the three previous Servant Songs is plainly and repeatedly identified as the nation of Israel.
Isaiah 41:8-9
But you, Israel, my servant, Jacob, whom I have chosen, the offspring of Abraham, my friend; you whom I took from the ends of the earth, and called from its farthest corners, saying to you, “You are my servant, I have chosen you and not cast you off.”
Code:
     **Isaiah 44:1**
      But now hear, O **Jacob my servant**, Israel whom I have chosen!
     
     **Isaiah 44:21**
      **Remember these things, O Jacob, and Israel, for you are my  servant; I formed you;    you are my servant; O Israel, you will not be  forgotten by me.**
     **Isaiah 45:4**
      **For the sake of my servant Jacob, and Israel my chosen**, I called you by your name,           I name you, though you do not know me.
     **Isaiah 48:20**
      Go out from Babylon, flee from Chaldea, declare this with a shout of joy, proclaim
      it, send it out to the end of the earth; say, “The Lord has redeemed his **servant Jacob**!”
     **Isaiah 49:3**
      And he said to me, “You are my **servant, Israel**, in whom I will be glorified.”

Code:
   [/INDENT]The OP's question: "What would be the Catholic response to these arguments?"
Peace and blessings,
Anna​
 
As with the quotes regarding the phrase “I am not a man” seen earlier in this thread, context is everything. Those verses, such as Psalm 146:3-4, are telling us to put our faith in God and not on mortal man. That is, I shouldn’t put all my faith in my neighbor, my mayor, or the president of the USA, but should rest all on God. To try to apply this to Jesus - who is God, simply God the Son while taking on a humanity - is putting the emphasis on the wrong syllable, as they say.
Mr. Wolf,
I agree.

The problem I see is this:

God told the Jewish people there is no salvation in a son of man and not to trust or regard those who have breath in their nostrils. Then, one day, a man appears–who has breath in his nostrils and calls himself the son of man and claims to be our salvation.

The Jews have already been told that God is not a man, not to trust a man, nor put their hopes in a son of man, in whom there is no salvation. So, I can see why this would hinder their acceptance of Jesus.

It’s kind of like God said, remember when I told you I am not a man and don’t put your trust in a son of man, who cannot save----just scrach that. There is a man, a son of man, in whom there is salvation. Even though I told you I am not a man, I sent my son as God incarnate–in the flesh, as a man. He is fully man and fully God.

How is that not confusing?

Anna
 
Is there anyone who will answer this question? It seems to have gotten lost.

(Taken out of quote, so it can be quoted and answered 🙂 )

Regarding Isaiah 7, the Virgin Prophesy:

“The fact that no one will explain how this prophesy was fulfilled in a contemporary context is very disappointing to me, Jewish objections aside. If the prophesy was fulfilled in the time of King Ahaz, there would have been a woman who bore a child, whose coming of age, provided a time frame for events to occur. If this were the case, how can one read a “virginal” conception into a future prophesy?”

Anna
I also hope someone will try to answer this problem. It may be helpful to go back to the link to Rabbi Singer’s article on Isaiah 7 which Anna provided earlier. Towards the end of the article he brings up this question:

----Christians may agree that the prophecy was fulfilled in King Ahaz’ time (I’m convinced we have to agree about this) but then also say it had a double fulfillment in Jesus.(I think the double fulfillment idea is plausible.)

----But Christians also say that the word “almah” should be translated as “virgin”; if they insist on that, however, (while simultaneously holding the double fulfillment idea) then who was the virgin who conceived and bore a son in King Ahaz’ time? Have there been two virgin births in the history of Israel???

I first came across Rabbi Singer’s “Let’s Get Biblical” series of tapes back in the mid-1990’s. He presents a good apologetic for interpreting the Tanakh from a Jewish perspective. His weakness comes in trying to relay to his Jewish audience what Christians believe. While he’s clearly intelligent and seems to have put considerable effort into reading Christian sources, he doesn’t “get” Christianity; I believe he grossly over-reaches himself in trying to explain Christianity to his listeners. But, that doesn’t negate the fact that in his area of expertise—Judaism—he presents some good points which we as Christians need to respond to.
 
Is there anyone who will answer this question? It seems to have gotten lost.

(Taken out of quote, so it can be quoted and answered 🙂 )

Regarding Isaiah 7, the Virgin Prophesy:

“The fact that no one will explain how this prophesy was fulfilled in a contemporary context is very disappointing to me, Jewish objections aside. If the prophesy was fulfilled in the time of King Ahaz, there would have been a woman who bore a child, whose coming of age, provided a time frame for events to occur. If this were the case, how can one read a “virginal” conception into a future prophesy?”

Anna
I also hope someone will try to answer this problem. It may be helpful to go back to the link to Rabbi Singer’s article on Isaiah 7 which Anna provided earlier. Towards the end of the article he brings up this question:

----Christians may agree that the prophecy was fulfilled in King Ahaz’ time (I’m convinced we have to agree about this) but then also say it had a double fulfillment in Jesus.(I think the double fulfillment idea is plausible.)

----But Christians also say that the word “almah” should be translated as “virgin”; if they insist on that, however, (while simultaneously holding the double fulfillment idea) then who was the virgin who conceived and bore a son in King Ahaz’ time? Have there been two virgin births in the history of Israel???

I first came across Rabbi Singer’s “Let’s Get Biblical” series of tapes back in the mid-1990’s. He presents a good apologetic for interpreting the Tanakh from a Jewish perspective. His weakness comes in trying to relay to his Jewish audience what Christians believe. While he’s clearly intelligent and seems to have put considerable effort into reading Christian sources, he doesn’t “get” Christianity; I believe he grossly over-reaches himself in trying to explain Christianity to his listeners. But, that doesn’t negate the fact that in his area of expertise—Judaism—he presents some good points which we as Christians need to respond to.
AbideWithMe,

Yes, we do need to respond; and not only for the Jewish people; but for ourselves as well.

I think Christians have a difficult time understanding Jewish thought and vice versa.

On this thread, I have really tried to consider the Jewish perspective. That may, at times, seem that I am arguing against Christianity; but that is not the case. I am simply stepping back, trying to see how the Hebrew Scriptures can be interpreted so differently.

The Jewish forum members really don’t want to have this discussion, and I don’t blame them.

The Catholic OP asked what would be the Catholic response to the Jewish criticisms posted in the OP. Many remain on the table unanswered.The Virgin prophesy is one of them.

Hopeful,
Anna
 
AbideWithMe,

Yes, we do need to respond; and not only for the Jewish people; but for ourselves as well.

I think Christians have a difficult time understanding Jewish thought and vice versa.

On this thread, I have really tried to consider the Jewish perspective. That may, at times, seem that I am arguing against Christianity; but that is not the case. I am simply stepping back, trying to see how the Hebrew Scriptures can be interpreted so differently.

The Jewish forum members really don’t want to have this discussion, and I don’t blame them.

The Catholic OP asked what would be the Catholic response to the Jewish criticisms posted in the OP. Many remain on the table unanswered.The Virgin prophesy is one of them.

Hopeful,
Anna
Pen Name Anna…

I suggest this work, rather than looking at Rabinnical Judaism and its treatment of this issue…

Paul the Convert: The Apostolate and Apostasy of Saul the Pharisee [Paperback]
Mr. Alan F. Segal (Author)

Segal is a Jew, writing for Jewish understanding… and he makes several points…
Segal tries to understand Paul as a fellow Jew and neither lionizes him as the hero of Christendom nor disparages him as a self seeking adventurer who turned Christianity into a Hellenistic mystery religion. Segal describes Paul as a Pharisaic Jew who converted to an apocalyptic form of Judaism (primitive Christianity) based upon his revelation of the risen Christ and his years spent in Syria living with a community of gentile believers who enabled him to interpret the meaning of his revelation.
Segal claims that it is a mistake to identify Rabbinic Judaism with the first century Pharisees and to use the Mishnah and the Talmud to understand the Jewish opposition to Jesus. In Segal’s own words, “it is a pity that few Jewish writers have attempted to understand Paul” and “Paul is, ironically, one of the most fruitful and reliable sources for first century Jewish religious life.”
Paul’s revelation can be understood in the same light as what was known later as Jewish Merkabah mysticism which, in the first century, was linked with apocalyptic beliefs (ie Qumran). Paul’s risen Christ can be identified with the human figure on a throne acting as a heavenly mediator who carries the name of the Lord and reflects the glory of God which was inspired by the books of Ezekiel, Daniel, and Enoch. This figure was known by various titles such as Son of Man, Melchizedek, and Metatron.
This book is recommended by Dr. Scott Hahn…
 
Pen name Anna, ma bud,

I did not suggest that everyone read Nicea, what I suggested was looking at the OT scriptures used by the Council. I will see if I can find it. I have been busy. I will give a look.
Coptic,
I’m sorry. I just couldn’t help myself. 😃
Pen
 
AbideWithMe,

Yes, we do need to respond; and not only for the Jewish people; but for ourselves as well.

I think Christians have a difficult time understanding Jewish thought and vice versa.

On this thread, I have really tried to consider the Jewish perspective. That may, at times, seem that I am arguing against Christianity; but that is not the case. I am simply stepping back, trying to see how the Hebrew Scriptures can be interpreted so differently.

The Jewish forum members really don’t want to have this discussion, and I don’t blame them.

The Catholic OP asked what would be the Catholic response to the Jewish criticisms posted in the OP. Many remain on the table unanswered.The Virgin prophesy is one of them.

Hopeful,
Anna
Pen Name Anna…

I suggest this work, rather than looking at Rabinnical Judaism and its treatment of this issue…

Paul the Convert: The Apostolate and Apostasy of Saul the Pharisee [Paperback]
Mr. Alan F. Segal (Author)

Segal is a Jew, writing for Jewish understanding… and he makes several points…

This book is recommended by Dr. Scott Hahn…
Coptic, Coptic, Coptic (I was going to shorten this address to CCC, but realized this is an abbreviation for Catechism of the Catholic Church, :doh2: )

Interesting resource, but how does this answer the issue of two women in the virgin prophesy?

Pen

P.S. I am a fan of Scott Hahn and have read 3 of his books, thanks to a kind Catholic friend.
 
That’s a good idea :). But I was thinking something more along the lines of a theological response to these points.
You might want to check out Dr. Brandt Pitre’s website…Phd from Notre Dame in Ancient Judaism and New Testament Studies. He has great books and CDs that discuss the fulfillment of all these prophecies, feasts, etc. He has one on The Lost Tribes of Israel and the Last Supper…so good! You will learn how the gathering in of the lost tribes was fullfilled in Christ and the same for the Messianic Banquet etc.

After studying Matthew and seeing how Jesus relives the life of Israel and having it pointed out to me how he was “gathering the tribes around himself” …and from ancient Jewish texts, we see that they beleived the Land to be “spiritual” …not necessarily physical. Check his site out and you can print out his handouts!
 
rafarose,

Isaiah Chapter 53 is included in the criticisms quoted by the OP. The meaning of this passage has been debated for many centuries.

(bold emphasis is mine):

Who is God’s Suffering Servant?* The Rabbinic Interpretation of Isaiah 53*
The broad consensus among Jewish, and even some Christian commentators, that the “servant” in Isaiah 52-53 refers to the nation of Israel is understandable. Isaiah 53, which is the fourth of four renowned Servant Songs, is umbilically connected to its preceding chapters. The “servant” in each of the three previous Servant Songs is plainly and repeatedly identified as the nation of Israel.
Isaiah 41:8-9
But you, Israel, my servant, Jacob, whom I have chosen, the offspring of Abraham, my friend; you whom I took from the ends of the earth, and called from its farthest corners, saying to you, “You are my servant, I have chosen you and not cast you off.”
Code:
     **Isaiah 44:1**
      But now hear, O **Jacob my servant**, Israel whom I have chosen!
     
     **Isaiah 44:21**
      **Remember these things, O Jacob, and Israel, for you are my  servant; I formed you;    you are my servant; O Israel, you will not be  forgotten by me.**
     **Isaiah 45:4**
      **For the sake of my servant Jacob, and Israel my chosen**, I called you by your name,           I name you, though you do not know me.
     **Isaiah 48:20**
      Go out from Babylon, flee from Chaldea, declare this with a shout of joy, proclaim
      it, send it out to the end of the earth; say, “The Lord has redeemed his **servant Jacob**!”
     **Isaiah 49:3**
      And he said to me, “You are my **servant, Israel**, in whom I will be glorified.”

Code:
   [/INDENT]The OP's question: "What would be the Catholic response to these arguments?"
Peace and blessings,
Anna

Dear Anna,

I just read and researched some of the arguments that are presented. I understand that Israel is referred to as a singular servant several times in the book of Isaiah, but there is one area where this argument lacks. Isaiah, consequently, refers to Israel as a feminine. Right after Isaiah chapter 53, in chapter 54, Isaiah refers to Israel as the Lord’s wife, “Sing, O barren, you who have not borne!" Further, Isaiah also compares Israel to a widow in the next few verses, “Do not fear, for you will not be ashamed; neither be disgraced, for you will not be put to shame; for you will forget the shame of your youth, and will not remember the reproach of your widowhood any more. For your Maker is your husband
Ultimately, the point I am trying to make is that Isaiah compares Israel to a woman many times. In chapter 53, Isaiah refers to a masculine suffering servant, " for He was pierced…he was oppressed, he was…etc"

I find it strange that Isaiah would refer Israel to this particular suffering servant…I am not sure, what do you think?

God bless 🙂
 
MJ,
I just don’t think that answers the issue. I think the fact that you can find some translations that substitute “mortal” for “son of man” demonstrates that translators know it is problematic for the Christian message.

Yes, Jesus is the Son of God; but He is also fully man with “breath in his nostrils” and is called the Son of Man.

Anna
Anna, I’d like to ask then why EVERYTIME Jesus calls himself the Son of Man, it is always with a capitalized “S” ? Isn’t this very consistent to differentiate son of man as a mortal man and Himself the God Man?

Yes, Jesus had breath in his nostrils. Interestingly he breathed on the Apostles giving the Holy Spirit. Compare this with Genesis 2:7. God also breathes into Adam. ! It’s an amazing connection/parallel.

MJ
 
God told the Jewish people, etc.
If Jesus were merely coming forward as a simple man, I would definitely understand why many would be “tripped up” (as they say), and they would have a right to go to the verses cited before. However, if Christ proves His divinity, that makes him God. We are therefore not putting our faith in a mere man - like I am a mere man - but God the Son incarnate in the flesh. Some examples where Christ clearly attributed divinity to himself (because I know some Jews out there try to argue Christ never did):

And behold, some people brought to him a paralytic, lying on a bed. And when Jesus saw their faith, he said to the paralytic, “Take heart, my son; your sins are forgiven.” [Matthew 9:2] - It has been contested that salvation is in God alone - if this is the case, then Christ is guilty of blasphemy here, for he has forgiven the sins of the paralytic. The scribes were well aware of this, given that in the very next verse they accuse Christ of blasphemy in their hearts. Herein we have two dilemmas: Christ is either the biggest blasphemer to ever live, taking credit and duties from God, or he is God.

Now while the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them a question, saying, “What do you think about the Christ? Whose son is he?” They said to him, “The son of David.” He said to them, “How is it then that David, in the Spirit, calls him Lord, saying, ‘The Lord said to my Lord, sit at my right hand, until I put your enemies under your feet’? If then David calls him Lord, how is he his son?” [Matthew 22:41-45] - Having been bothered by the Sanhedrin, scribes and lawyers during his whole time at the Temple, Christ now goes on the offensive, and asks them a question: whose son is the Christ? (that is, from where does he come from) They answer that he is the son of David (that is, a descendent of David), to which Christ quotes Psalm 110:1, in which King David calls one of his descendents “Lord” (something an elder in a family would never do). Christ then poses a question regarding this: if the Christ is just the son of David (that is, merely his descendent and nothing more), then why is he called Lord and held in such high esteem? The answer points towards Christ’s divinity - the Pharisees were probably well aware of this, given that, as it says in the next verse, they are completely unable to give a proper response.

“Truly, truly, I say to you, an hour is coming, and is now here, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God, and those who hear will live. For as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted the Son also to have life in himself. And he has given him authority to execute judgment, because he is the Son of Man. Do not marvel at this, for an hour is coming when all who are in the tombs will hear his voice and come out, those who have done good to the resurrection of life, and those who have done evil to the resurrection of judgment. I can do nothing on my own. As I hear, I judge, and my judgment is just, because I seek not my own will but the will of him who sent me.” [John 5:25-30] - Verse 30 is perhaps one of the most misquoted verses (indeed, it was misquoted earlier in this thread), however, when you see the full context, it’s actually a strong affirmation of divinity. Christ had earlier stated: “The Son can do nothing of his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing. For whatever the Father does, that the Son does likewise” (v. 19). Here we see the coeternal, coexistent nature of Father and Son within the Trinity, one of the strongest in the Gospels, and indeed the New Testament. It shows the unity of God the Son with God the Father.

Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.” [John 8:58] - Christ not only states that he existed before Abraham, but speaks of it in present tense…a statement that only eternal beings can make, and hence a statement only God would say. The Jews were clearly aware of this, given in the exact next verse they picked up stones to throw at him.

So when someone says “The Bible says we shouldn’t put our faith in mortal men,” they should not immediately assume this contradicts Christian theology. Christ is not a mere man, but is God the Son. He is divine, and by his name alone do we have salvation (Acts 4:12), for his name comes with the authority and power of God.

Let me try to use an analogy - and like most analogies, it probably has flaws, but I’m using it to convey an idea and not the standard. Suppose the General Manager of a TV station says, “Don’t let a production assistant boss you around.” Then one day, a production assistant calls in sick, and the studio crew is short. The GM, out of humility, fills in the role of the production assistant. Now imagine if an anchor was about to do something immensely absurd, and the GM promptly cried out, “Hold up! Don’t do that!” Would the anchor turn and say, “You’re a production assistant! I don’t have to do anything you say!” Probably not. Although the General Manager is currently in the role of a production assistant, he is still the General Manager, and still retains all the authority and privileges granted him. In like manner, that God the Son has taken flesh and dwelt among us does not contradict the notion that we can find salvation only in God and not in man.
 
JM,
Also to be considered is that in a number of translations, a word such as “mortal” is substituted for “son of man” in most of the OT passages; but not in the NT, where “son of man” is retained to refer to Christ. So, there isn’t a consistency in translation of mortal vs. son of man.

See Catholic Bibles Blogspot, in which the RSV and NRSV are discussed.

See Common English Bible same website.

Anna
Anna, I’d like to ask then why EVERYTIME Jesus calls himself the Son of Man, it is always with a capitalized “S” ? Isn’t this very consistent to differentiate son of man as a mortal man and Himself the God Man?
MJ,

That is an emphasis we use in the English language.

The Greek New Testament was written in all capital letters with no punctuation, spaces, etc. See THE GREEK ALPHABET

There are no capital letters in Hebrew. See The Alphabet of Biblical Hebrew
. . .Yes, Jesus had breath in his nostrils. Interestingly he breathed on the Apostles giving the Holy Spirit. Compare this with Genesis 2:7. God also breathes into Adam. ! It’s an amazing connection/parallel.
Very interesting point; and one I had not considered. 🙂

Peace and blessings,
Anna
 
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