phil19034:
As I said in the post above, there is nothing in the US Constitution which specifically bars a state from secession.
On this, given that I’m not an American myself and only studied US constitutionalism at undergraduate level as part of comparative constitutional law, I must defer to your much greater knowledge.
That said, the two concessions noted by our hawk-eyed @PickyPicky really do weaken your point of legal comparison here, I should think.
EUR-Lex - 12012M050 - EN - EUR-Lex
Article 50
1. Any Member State may decide to withdraw from the Union in accordance with its own constitutional requirements.
2. A Member State which decides to withdraw shall notify the European Council of its intention. In the light of the guidelines provided by the European Council, the Union shall negotiate and conclude an agreement with that State, setting out the arrangements for its withdrawal, taking account of the framework for its future relationship with the Union. That agreement shall be negotiated in accordance with Article 218(3) of the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union. It shall be concluded on behalf of the Union by the Council, acting by a qualified majority, after obtaining the consent of the European Parliament.
3. The Treaties shall cease to apply to the State in question from the date of entry into force of the withdrawal agreement or, failing that, two years after the notification referred to in paragraph 2, unless the European Council, in agreement with the Member State concerned, unanimously decides to extend this period.
Through the Art. 50 TEU process, the EU has a legally recognised and binding procedure for state secession, whereas the US constitution not only doesn’t but the last time a significant number of states attempted to break away, the Union fought a war with them on the basis that the secession was illegal because the US was a “
union indivisible”.
The EU is not a union ‘indivisible’ but rather one in which every member states accedes voluntarily and has the right to withdraw if it sees fit, in accordance with its own constitutional requirements.
By contrast, the US Constitution simply does not provide a way for states to secede. In terms of legal precedent, I have this vague recollection that in the 1869 case of
Texas v. White, the Chief Justice said a state might be able to secede with the consent of the other states. Well, that isn’t an exercise of sovereignty if you need the consent of other states and the Confederacy’s termination seems to put that rather on very shaky ground.