I am considering the Orthodox Church

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I am very calm JhC. I was merely attempting to show that the IC doctrine is a Latin innovation—much like papal supremacy/infallibility. I am sorry if my posts offend you–it is not intentional.

What is inaccurate about the ultramontanists?
 
A term used to denote integral and active Catholicism, because it recognizes as its spiritual head the pope, who, for the greater part of Europe, is a dweller beyond the mountains (ultra montes), that is, beyond the Alps. The term “ultramontane”, indeed, is relative: from the Roman, or Italian, point of view, the French, the Germans, and all the other peoples north of the Alps are ultramontanes, and technical ecclesiastical language actually applies the word in precisely this sense. In the Middle Ages, when a non-Italian pope was elected he was said to be a papa ultramontano. In this sense the word occurs very frequently in documents of the thirteenth century; after the migration to Avignon, however, it dropped out of the language of the Curia.
newadvent.org/cathen/15125a.htm
 
Yes. You have attempted to spin St Gregory in the past. These are beautifully poetic words about the Panaghia—but not even close to supporting the IC. 😉
The deposit of faith is a compilation of scripture and tradition (and anything delineated thereafter through the magisterium via ecumenical councils). Moreover, the IC does not contradict the deposit of faith but rather is upheld by what we already know and what we can surmise from all three.

p.s. I will explain what I mean later this evening.
 
p.s. I will explain what I mean later this evening.
No need to explain it to me. I already know the RC apologetics on this. 😉

The Holy Orthodox Church does not believe the “IC doctrine” is from Sacred Scripture. We do not believe it is from Sacred Tradition. We do not see it in the great Councils of the Church.
 
According to Kallistos Ware Orthodox are free to believe it. 😉

The Orthodox Church calls Mary ‘All-Holy;’ it calls her ‘immaculate’ or ‘spotless’ (in Greek, achrantos); and all Orthodox are agreed in believing that Our Lady was free from actual sin. But was she also free from original sin? In other words, does Orthodoxy agree with the Roman Catholic doctrine of the Immaculate Conception, proclaimed as a dogma by Pope Pius the Ninth in 1854, according to which Mary, from the moment she was conceived by her mother Saint Anne, was by God’s special decree delivered from ‘all stain of original sin?’ The Orthodox Church has never in fact made any formal and definitive pronouncement on the matter. In the past individual Orthodox have made statements which, if not definitely affirming the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception, at any rate approach close to it; but since 1854 the great majority of Orthodox have rejected the doctrine, for several reasons. They feel it to be unnecessary; they feel that, at any rate as defined by the Roman Catholic Church, it implies a false understanding of original sin; they suspect the doctrine because it seems to separate Mary from the rest of the descendants of Adam, putting her in a completely different class from all the other righteous men and women of the Old Testament. From the Orthodox point of view, however, the whole question belongs to the realm of theological opinion; and if an individual Orthodox today felt impelled to believe in the Immaculate Conception, he could not be termed a heretic for so doing.

(empahsis mine)
 
The concept of development (evolution of understanding) of doctrine depends upon some Anglican converts of recent history (19th century) who had a need to explain their conversions to the English Protestant world they had been a part of and continued to interact with.
Really? Because it was Newman that said, “To be deep in history is to cease to be Protestant”
In a sense, they could not actually deny that the Latin Catholic church did add to, or change, interpretations of it’s received Apostolic beliefs (a major criticism also leveled by the 16th century Latin Catholic reformers who shattered the western church), the evidence for the changes was just too strong, so they described it as “development” to mitigate the impact.
If the evidence was “just too strong” why did they convert to the Catholic Church? 🤷
Could it be they believed the Church to be the One, Holy, Catholic and Apostolic Church, the One True Church established by Jeus Christ with the Pope as the successor of St. Peter? Why did they not just become Orthodox, if they had such a struggle to bamboozle their Protestant friends into believing that the Church doesn’t change, and had to invent this new theory to do so?

I’m not so sure that Luther and Calvin’s flat out denial of essential Catholic Truths was the result of their “struggle” over “changes” in essential Catholic Truths. This doesn’t even make sense and I’ve never heard this bizarre theory before. :confused:
Why didn’t they just become Orthodox?
There are different ways to view these phenomena. The idea that the understanding of essential Truths can change over time (and even potentially return to earlier interpretations) is one worth exploring, I think.
A deeper understanding? Yes. Change? No.
Here’s a theory, “I will send the paraclete to lead you into all Truths”
It is also worth discussing what the value of this concept may be to the Christian community, for example: how does it save people? … And whether or not there is actually some tangible benefit to those believers who are born later enough (in time) to know of the changes.
Yes, the ideas of obeying the Church established by Jesus Christ for the salvation of souls or picking and choosing what you want to believe because someone thinks they know better then Almighty God and His Church (ie Luther, Calvin) is worth exploring.
 
According to Kallistos Ware Orthodox are free to believe it. 😉

The Orthodox Church calls Mary ‘All-Holy;’ it calls her ‘immaculate’ or ‘spotless’ (in Greek, achrantos); and all Orthodox are agreed in believing that Our Lady was free from actual sin. But was she also free from original sin? In other words, does Orthodoxy agree with the Roman Catholic doctrine of the Immaculate Conception, proclaimed as a dogma by Pope Pius the Ninth in 1854, according to which Mary, from the moment she was conceived by her mother Saint Anne, was by God’s special decree delivered from ‘all stain of original sin?’ The Orthodox Church has never in fact made any formal and definitive pronouncement on the matter. In the past individual Orthodox have made statements which, if not definitely affirming the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception, at any rate approach close to it; but since 1854 the great majority of Orthodox have rejected the doctrine, for several reasons. They feel it to be unnecessary; they feel that, at any rate as defined by the Roman Catholic Church, it implies a false understanding of original sin; they suspect the doctrine because it seems to separate Mary from the rest of the descendants of Adam, putting her in a completely different class from all the other righteous men and women of the Old Testament. From the Orthodox point of view, however, the whole question belongs to the realm of theological opinion; and if an individual Orthodox today felt impelled to believe in the Immaculate Conception, he could not be termed a heretic for so doing.

(empahsis mine)
Btw, to anyone who’s interested, the following paragraph in (at the time) Bishop Kallistos’ paper reads:

“But Orthodoxy, while for the most part denying the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception of Mary, firmly believes in her Bodily Assumption…”

Then he goes on to explain why the Orthodox, not accepting the rest of the Immaculate Conception as dogma, have always historically accepted the Bodily Assumption. What he is arguing in the paragraph jam070406 provided is that while Immaculate Conception is not heretical, but it is not an Orthodox doctrine either.
According to Kallistos Ware Orthodox are free to believe it. 😉
The Orthodox are also free to believe that monkeys are rainbow colored, just because one is free to believe something, doesn’t make it true. Immaculate Conception is possible, in God all things are possible, but there is a more logical and more scripturally founded explanation for Mary’s purity, which the Orthodox have chosen to believe.
 
Cool, but it is not error nor ever condemned as error. And as an Orthodox it is perfectly acceptable to believe it as Truth, as Mr. Ware affirms.
 
Cool, but it is not error nor ever condemned as error. And as an Orthodox it is perfectly acceptable to believe it as Truth, as Mr. Ware affirms.
The Orthodox isn’t really one to spaz out and declare doctrines. If they don’t see it as harmful to salvation or as leading people significantly astray, they won’t declare it heretical. But Immaculate Conception is not an Orthodox belief, and is not embraced by the Orthodox.

And please, don’t call him “Mr. Ware”…that’s just taunting the Orthodox. 😛
 
Sorry, Bishop Ware.

It is often cited as an “error” we must drop. It is often used as a barrier to Unity. So, if it is not a big deal that needs to be defined then don’t use it as some sort of big deal to condemn the Church as false and teaching error that we must retract.
The Orthodox isn’t really one to spaz out and declare doctrines. If they don’t see it as harmful to salvation or as leading people significantly astray, they won’t declare it heretical. But Immaculate Conception is not an Orthodox belief, and is not embraced by the Orthodox.

And please, don’t call him “Mr. Ware”…that’s just taunting the Orthodox. 😛
 
Yes. You have attempted to spin St Gregory in the past. These are beautifully poetic words about the Panaghia—but not even close to supporting the IC. 😉
That’s the usual spin many non-Catholics use of many of these patristic verses (and I agree to a good extent), but I have yet to read from a non-Catholic apologist a concrete reason for why they cannot be used in support of the IC. Not one has taken account of the underlying truth behind the poetic expressions.

Please demonstrate to us how the lines I highlighted are “merely” poetic. Thanks.

If you can give a similar appraisal of brother James’ quotes, that would also be appreciated.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
No need to explain it to me. I already know the RC apologetics on this. 😉

The Holy Orthodox Church does not believe the “IC doctrine” is from Sacred Scripture. We do not believe it is from Sacred Tradition. We do not see it in the great Councils of the Church.
I haven’t found the essence/energies distinction in Sacred Scripture or the Councils of the Church either.🤷

Blessings,
Marduk
 
It is often cited as an “error” we must drop. It is often used as a barrier to Unity. So, if it is not a big deal that needs to be defined then don’t use it as some sort of big deal to condemn the Church as false and teaching error that we must retract.
Very well put, brother. EO often complain that the CC is too dogmatic, forgetting that their responses are so very often also just as dogmatic (log in the eye and all that).

Blessings,
Marduk
 
It is often cited as an “error” we must drop. It is often used as a barrier to Unity. So, if it is not a big deal that needs to be defined then don’t use it as some sort of big deal to condemn the Church as false and teaching error that we must retract.
Actually, this conversation started about 10 pages back when a catholic member (I can’t remember who and I’m way too lazy to shift through all the pages of this thread) used Immaculate Conception as a reason to reject the Orthodox church. The Orthodox people didn’t start this one 😃 and I agree, it’s probably not that big of a deal, it’s just an obvious difference so people (including me sometimes) get sort of ruffled about it, i guess we should have learned our lesson after about 10 pgs of stalement on the thread 🙂
 
Actually, this conversation started about 10 pages back when a catholic member (I can’t remember who and I’m way too lazy to shift through all the pages of this thread) used Immaculate Conception as a reason to reject the Orthodox church. The Orthodox people didn’t start this one 😃
I may be mistaken, but I thought it was an Orthodox poster that tried to use it to disprove the Papacy. 😊
and I agree, it’s probably not that big of a deal, it’s just an obvious difference so people (including me sometimes) get sort of ruffled about it, i guess we should have learned our lesson after about 10 pgs of stalement on the thread 🙂
The fact that you get ruffled is disturbing. You should be happy that our Faiths are closer then some like to lead others to believe. 🤷 Why is that a bad thing? 😦
 
I may be mistaken, but I thought it was an Orthodox poster that tried to use it to disprove the Papacy. 😊
It probably started and ended several times, when I jumped into the conversation, it was being restarted by a Catholic person. I might look if I have enough free time.
The fact that you get ruffled is disturbing. You should be happy that our Faiths are closer then some like to lead others to believe. 🤷 Why is that a bad thing? 😦
I get ruffled because I feel like it doesn’t make sense and has very little foundation in scripture (You can probably tell from my previous posts), but I guess it depends on each person’s read of the bible. I am glad though, now that I think about it, that it wouldn’t stand as a barrier for unification, looks like you are wiser than I am 😉
 
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