Reposting this link. Notice how this discussion of instructions for treatment of rape victims in Catholic hospitals explicitly refers to the action of the medication as preventing conception (defending herself against a conception) and later refers to the medication as a contraceptive. The entire article is discussing why, even though contraceptive medicine (medical terminology) is being used in a medically contraceptive fashion, the woman who is taking the medication and her health care providers are not guilty of the sin of contraception. The specific medication mentioned in the long form of the article inhibits ovulation. It is being used to protect her egg from the unjust aggressor, the sperm. Recall that sperm are not passive cells. They are designed to hunt down the egg and fertilize it. The rapist has no right to deposit his sperm in the womb of his rape victim, so spermicide and ovulation-inhibiting medication are acceptable to protect the body of the victim from a continuing assault. They might be using medical contraceptive technology but they are not using it in a contraceptive fashion as described by the Church to be an intrinsic evil.
catholiceducation.org/articles/religion/re0566.html
"Finally, health care providers must provide treatment to prevent the possible contraction of venereal disease and pregnancy. The Directives state, “A woman who has been raped may defend herself against a conception resulting from sexual assault. If, after appropriate testing, there is no evidence that conception has occurred already, she may be treated with medication that would prevent ovulation, sperm capacitation, or fertilization. It is not permissible, however, to initiate or to recommend treatments that have as their purpose or direct effect the removal, destruction, or interference with the implantation of a fertilized ovum.”(no. 36)
…
“Therefore, before administering contraceptives to a rape victim, health care providers must ascertain first her medical history (including menstrual history, recent sexual activity, and contraceptive usage). A pregnancy test should be performed. If she is not pregnant but her medical history suggests the possibility that ovulation may have occurred, then health care providers ought to administer a Luteinizing Hormone urine dip test or a progesterone blood level test. These tests would indicate if ovulation has indeed occurred and thereby a child was possibly conceived. If these tests are not available in a timely way or at all, treatment should proceed as long as there is a reasonable doubt that ovulation has occurred.”
Thank you!!