Z
zz912
Guest
40 This is indeed the will of my Father, that all who see the Son and believe in him may have eternal life; and I will raise them up on the last day.”ZZ, I you are only focused on one tree in the forest. There is more to it than v.54. Again, please look back to v.40.
What does it mean to me? It means I need to believe Him when He says before AND after this verse, several times, that we must eat His Flesh and drink His Blood, and that His Flesh and Blood is REAL food and drink.Please see that it also has the exact same promise,namely “eternal life” and resurrection. Tell me if this is not so. What does it mean to you? Are we dealing wth two different promises? One for Catholics and one for Protestants?
This is a discourse, not a parable. And every time they challenge Jesus on this teaching, He gets MORE literal.Rather i think that the answer is the same as for all other parables. One is figurative and the other is literal. In all other parables of Jesus, the physical illustrates the spiritual. Is there a reason why this one is different?
*17 After taking the cup, he gave thanks and said, “Take this and divide it among you. 18 For I tell you I will not drink again from the fruit of the vine until the kingdom of God comes.”2nd observation. Jesus says in Lk22:19 This is My body which is given for you. The body that was" Given" was the one nailed to the cross. In v. 20 Jesus does not say the wine is his blood, but rather" This cup is the new covenant"
20 And he did the same with the cup after supper, saying, “This cup that is poured out for you is the new covenant in my blood.*
“in my blood”. Why did you leave out those three words? I’m missing your point because you can’t honestly be arguing that He isn’t directly saying the wine is His blood. He directly DOES say that.
Verse 40 and 54 are literal. How would they not harmonize?If i believe that v. 40 is literal, then everything works out. If not then I must reinterpret the rest of scripture to harmonize with the other way.