If Protestantism Is True

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I already faced and answered the question. Just because you reject what is found in passages such as 2 Tim 3:15-18 does not make it is false. 🙂 I can go exegetically with those verse by verse 🙂 In none of my post did I ever claimed that Jesus taught Sola Scriptura. You are putting forth a claim I never stated in any of my post. Speaking of Jesus , He did condemn claimed unwritten doctrinal oral traditions that some claimed to have been passed down from Moses and a succession lineage which contradicted or went againist the Old Testament. Jesus did set forth the principle of the supremacy of Scripture over claimed teaching authories and also the right of private judgement in searching the Scripture.

You did in fact demand I prove a universal negative. I have shown the inspiration of Scripture as being inspired by God. It carries therefore God’s authority. The burden of proof for Roman Catholicism is for them to put forth evidence that it’s church is infallible in teaching. I do not find anything of an infallible visible universal church. The folly of the question asked was the fact each church was a local church in the book of Acts. We do not find concepts such as the 5 Sees as existing during apostolic times. This is another reason why the question is itself being incorrectly asked. There are no claimed prophets or apostles today in which claimed inspired oral doctrinal teachings will come forth from. The only infallible record today of the teaching of Jesus and the apostles is Scripture. Roman Catholicism sure has not dogmatically and infallibly told us of anything Jesus and the apostles taught that are not presently found in Scripture.
Chafer,

Everything you say makes sense. I have one Problem. I keep thinking this.

The OT is Scripture and that is all that 2Timothy 3:16 validates. Beyond that we are left with problems questions confusion.

Paul was a Jew from the Tribe of Benjamin. Yes/No?

Paul was blinded and went to straight street. Yes/No?

Paul had scales fall from his eyes. Yes/No?

Some one say Paul was converted. Yes/No?

I say Paul was not converted, he was able to see in the OT things that others were blinded by and that is why he preached and quoted the OT so much as seen in Romans…in fact the letter to the Romans is filled with OT quotations

Here is a Protestant Source…

biblewheel.com/wheel/CitationsInRomans.asp

Here is a Catholic Source concerning the NT

catholic-resources.org/Bible/Quotations-NT-OT.htm

and Richard Hays has written “Echoes of Scripture in the writings of Paul”

amazon.com/Echoes-Scripture-Letters-Paul-Richard/dp/0300054297

So the least you can do is concede that others have recognized that the NT is filled with OT quotes…Yes…

So if you agree that Paul when preaching was quoting the OT and Interpreting in a way that the Jews of the time never heard before and that is why he was hunted to be killed…it suggests that the same Scripture, OT, read by Jews/Paul meant two different things and those differences were first preached and then written…the entire NT when using OT quotes is nothing more than a compilation of “oral tradition”…so on whose authority did Paul do this…

The same process was continued by the OHCAC and incorportated in writing in Church Documents by the magesterium to guide the faithful…not changing the meaning but giving the meaning to things like the Trinity, Jesus/God/Man…etc…Oral Tradition that becam written for our understanding…This Oral Tradition is not contradictory but rather complimentary…this is done with the same authority as the Apostles did not leave the Church to languish with a book…the oral teachings continued and were practiced.

If cooking was nothing more than reading a book, why do we need culinary schools, junior chefs, senior chefs, etc…why does the teaching go on in the kitchen orally and practically…?

When you propose a different meaning or any one else proposes a different meaning in conflict…the question has to be asked…on whose authority do you do this…?

When I was learning Protestant thought, one of the schools of thought is Creation Science. As a scientist this is no science. I attended a class where for an hour I was to be taught how to counter an evolutionist based on Creation Science teaching. I spent an hour listening to the propaganda and every now and again I was asked to repeat over and over again this response " Were you there"…so that when an evolutionist says that at some time in the past, the atoms came together and did this…I was to say…were you there? If the evolutionist said well the animals were like this and evolved into this…I was to ask “were you there”…that was the teaching…

So when you proposes any such notion about the early Church I would ask…were you there?
 
And as PRmerger has shown - YOU rely on a norm other than scripture to prove the inspiration of scripture, namely, the Church. And you cite documents written by fallible men (the thirty-nine articles, and other reformed confessions) to support this “infallible” tradition of sola scriptura. So, at the risk of repeating myself, I’ll state it again:

Prove this affirmative proposition: The bible teaches sola scriptura.

Thank you.
I don’t think we need to prove that the Bible teaches sola scriptura. As has been said before, there are other authorities besides the Bible. This is a weakness of the name sola scriptura which could be seen to imply otherwise; perhaps it should be renamed. However, if I have time, this weekend I’ll go on a sola scriptura scripture hunt to see what I can come up with for you. How does that sound?

Let me ask you something? Do you think you can prove infallibility (of anything) based on fallible evidence? I think you should be able. Let us take the spiral argument. Historical research is fallible (I assume there are no arguments here). Yet some Catholics use it to determine the reliability of the Matthew for determining Jesus’ words. They then use the conclusion, “Matthew is reliable” to say that Jesus found an infallible Church etc. etc. Now, this is a perfectly legitimate piece of evidence for the infallibility of the Church. However, this only works because of faith in the results of fallible (but reliable) processes. If you accept this type of argument, then it is necessary to recognize the validity of the Protestant type of argument that we can prove sola scriptura through the use of fallible sources (including tradition, 39 articles, etc.). BTW, I know most Protestant act as if sola scirptura is de facto infallible, but I know very few which would claim that.
The OT is Scripture and that is all that 2Timothy 3:16 validates. Beyond that we are left with problems questions confusion.
True, in the original context, this verse was only talking about the Septuagint (which is why I agree with the inclusion of the 7 “deutero-canonical” books). However, given that the NT has been determined to be Scripture, can this verse be expanded to include the NT as well?
I say Paul was not converted, he was able to see in the OT things that others were blinded by and that is why he preached and quoted the OT so much as seen in Romans…in fact the letter to the Romans is filled with OT quotations
Side Questions: I have heard this theory before, but I was always confused as to its purpose. Does it really matter if we say Paul was or was not converted? There was certainly a change in any case. And for some clarification, if we say Paul was not converted what about the 3000 at Pentecost or Jews who become believers today; are (were) they not-converted as well? Anyway, back to the discussion at hand.
So if you agree that Paul when preaching was quoting the OT and Interpreting in a way that the Jews of the time never heard before and that is why he was hunted to be killed…it suggests that the same Scripture, OT, read by Jews/Paul meant two different things and those differences were first preached and then written…the entire NT when using OT quotes is nothing more than a compilation of “oral tradition”…so on whose authority did Paul do this…
Ah, but there is an important distinction between oral tradition and quotations in the NT. Others could interpret the OT, but Paul was inspired by the Holy Spirit in (certain?) of his writings. Now, I am not exactly sure what the Catholic model of inspiration is, but I take this to mean that either Paul wrote something and the Holy Spirit put a stamp of approval on it or Paul was somehow led by the Holy Spirit to write his own words and the very words of God (I lean toward the latter). This is important because I believe that the same Spirit who inspired Scripture, is at work within each Christian, enabling her/him to recognize and interpret Scripture.
The same process was continued by the OHCAC and incorportated in writing in Church Documents by the magesterium to guide the faithful…not changing the meaning but giving the meaning to things like the Trinity, Jesus/God/Man…etc…Oral Tradition that becam written for our understanding…This Oral Tradition is not contradictory but rather complimentary…this is done with the same authority as the Apostles did not leave the Church to languish with a book…the oral teachings continued and were practiced.
I actually found myself agreeing with most of this paragraph. However, I would question the bolded statement. If we believe that Tradition did in fact get something wrong, or if they added something that was contradictory to Scripture (I said if:thumbsup:), then a judgment must be made. It is clear to those of us who hold sola scriptura that Scripture will always be the winner.
When you propose a different meaning or any one else proposes a different meaning in conflict…the question has to be asked…on whose authority do you do this…?

snip…

So when you proposes any such notion about the early Church I would ask…were you there?
Experts do give us evidence for our views. The problem is experts disagree, but we still have to make a decision. This should always be done in humility if we ourselves are not experts (and do not have the OHCAC to back us up). But there are experts. And every Christian has the Holy Spirit, an authority which should not be underestimated.
 
So, if apostolic succession was part of the original “rule of faith”, then how did it tie into the formation of the canon… so that one can see its influence on what went in and what stayed out? ….and so one can see the connection that would call for the acceptance of both upon the acceptance of one. Was the Didache excluded b/c it seemed to describe a Jewish synagogue practice of the congregation appointing for itself qualified leaders (as opposed to a more Roman hierarchical approach)? Why wasn’t 1 Clement (which at least describes a form of succession) or an epistle from Ignatius (which claims a form of authority for the bishop) put into the canon if the doctrinal framework (that included apostolic succession) was so decisive. It seems that there is little to no indication that the doctrine of apostolic succession played any part in the formation of the canon.
I’m a bit baffled by your argument here. Apostolic succession played a role because the canon we have is the canon determined by that community whose leaders claimed apostolic succession, as opposed to the many other early communities claiming to be Christian, which had different canons for the most part. You seem to be saying that one must find some connection between the content of the books accepted or rejected and the supposed cultural biases that led to apostolic succession–you then show that there is no such connection. But this tells against, not for, your argument. In fact you’ve made my point better than I have done.

If apostolic succession were what you claim–simply a cultural construct shaped by Roman ideas of order and hierarchy–then you’d expect the early “Catholic” community, led by bishops claiming apostolic succession. to accept books that confirmed those biases (like 1 Clement) and reject books that didn’t (like the Didache and Hermas). But in fact all three of these books were considered for inclusion and mentioned in some lists, and all three were ultimately rejected. Probably the one of the three that was most often accepted as canonical was Hermas, which you don’t mention but which in fact is the most opposed of the “almost canonical books” to the kind of “Roman” approach to Christianity that you find in 1 Clement.

You choose to interpret this to mean that the Spirit was guiding the early Christian community with regard to canon inclusion but not necessarily in other ways. But that’s a rather awkward interpretation that makes sense to you only because of your Protestant presuppositions. The far more reasonable interpretation, I think, is the one offered by Irenaeus–the discernment of books and the preservation of the rule of faith are two forms of the same thing, and both were reliably carried out by the leaders to whom the apostles entrusted the churches, under the guidance of the Holy Spirit.
The conservative Catholic states: I believe that God acted to ensure that the Church possessed the gift of infallibility so that when the Church set the canon, only the right books made it into the canon.
As I’ve said before, I think the word “infallibility” causes more problems than it solves in many ways. It can mean a lot of things and is often used misguidedly by modern Catholics with epistemological connotations. I wish we could just bracket it in these discussions. It’s a way of describing the Catholic conclusion about the way in which the Spirit has guided the Church. But we can discuss the issue without bringing the word into it. The question I want to consider is whether or not it’s reasonable to accept the basic patristic presuppositions, in the first place, and the general conclusions and principles of Catholicism and Orthodoxy (as opposed to Protestantism) as a continuation and development of those presuppositions, in the second place. If the answer is “yes,” as I think it is, then I think it’s reasonable to use the word “infallibility” to describe how the Spirit has helped the tradition get things basically right over the centuries. At that point, positing infallibility doesn’t violate Occam’s razor at all. It’s the simplest explanation. The Protestant position, which refuses to ascribe Spirit-guided infallibility to the Church (even with regard to canon formation, in most cases), is left with saying that the Church somehow just “happened” to get a fairly complicated thing like the NT canon exactly right (along with, in most cases, other complex issues like the divinity of Jesus), when your presuppositions about the cultural “contamination” of early Christianity by Roman ideas would naturally lead to other conclusions. That violates Occam’s razor, because it posits a very complex set of “just right” conclusions by the early Church with no unifying principle to explain why all those conclusions came out right.

The argument I’m making, in keeping with the title of the OP, is that if Protestantism is true, then not only are modern Catholicism and Orthodoxy seriously mistaken on a number of points in their interpretation of the original apostolic “tradition,” but the very early Christian community to which we owe the discernment of the NT canon was also seriously mistaken on a number of points of basic principle. And that, I argue, violates Occam’s razor unless it is obviously a necessary conclusion. Protestantism thus faces an extremely high burden of proof. It’s not, as a lot of RC apologists claim, that Protestantism should simply be dismissed, but rather that the basic Protestant claims had better be as Scripturally obvious as Protestants claim they are, and furthermore that our reasons for believing in Christianity in the first place need to be a lot stronger than they need to be if Catholicism or Orthodoxy are correct (because at that point, Occam’s razor would point toward the conclusion that the whole thing was a big mistake in the first place). For me personally, the combination of these two requirements is practically impossible to meet. If I were convinced that Protestantism were true, I don’t think I could reasonably go on being a Christian. But I understand why others might see this differently.
that last bit sounds like a very subjective process
It depends on what you mean by “subjective.” I don’t think there is an Archimedean point of objectivity from which one can discern these things. We all stand somewhere, in what Kuhn would call a “paradigm” and MacIntyre would call a “tradition.” I’m happy to lowercase the “t” for the purpose of this discussion if the capital letter gives you the willies:D.

Rephrasing my statement then: we all stand within some tradition. I have been “converted” from a tradition shaped radically by 19th-century American democracy and before that by early modern European presuppositions to one that reasonably claims greater continuity with the presuppositions of early Christianity (I was “converted” in this way–however imperfectly from an RC or EO perspective–because I discovered that the presuppositions of my tradition clashed radically with those of older forms of Christianity, and I found the latter more persuasive on multiple levels). I have been shaped by that more continuity-focused form of Christianity for about 14 years now (the spring of 1998 was both when I became Episcopalian and when–shortly after that in fact–I decided that where Catholicism and Orthodoxy agreed over against Protestantism, I was unable to follow Protestantism), plus several more years before that when I was struggling with the basic choice between Protestantism and the more “catholic” forms of Christianity.
why? It seems that the Pharisees were able to recognize scripture sufficiently so that Jesus used the same books as them, yet they sure got other things wrong.
What major doctrinal things did they get wrong? The distinctive Pharisee doctrinal claims appear to have been
  1. The dead will be raised;
  2. Angels and demons exist
Both of these beliefs are accepted by historic Christianity; in fact the first and more controversial of the two is absolutely central to Christianity (as Paul pointed out when on trial before the Sanhedrin).

So this example, again, is a very strong one on my side of the argument. If Jesus and the early Christians had accepted the same canon as the Pharisees while disagreeing with them on these basic doctrinal points, then you’d have a case. But exactly the opposite is true–and surprisingly true given the tone of hostility toward the Pharisees in much of the NT.
there is a lot more required to establish the claimed apostolic succession than the existence of a strong hierarchy that might have been started with leaders appointed by the apostles.
Indeed. What is required is trust in the Holy Spirit’s guidance of the Church. One can’t prove that such trust is justified, any more than one can prove that Scripture is divinely inspired. All I’m saying is that it makes sense to trust that the same Spirit who inspired the NT and guided the Church to discern the NT canon rightly also guided the Church to interpret it rightly on major doctrinal points. To say that the first happened and not the second assumes a late medieval/early modern privileging of the fixed, written text that is at least as culture-bound as any early Christian presupposition you might wish to criticize.
 
not sure what you mean by nuances
I mean, for instance, that “apostolic succession” may well have been shared by several presbyters at times, or that the “senior presbyter” may not have been uniquely labeled “bishop” in all cities and may be pretty hard to distinguish in the sources from the other presbyters, and so on.
and it isn’t as if a bias doesn’t exist for proponents of the doctrine
Certainly. But the bias of “proponents” is toward agreeing with the tradition we’ve been handed, within which the acceptance of the NT canon makes sense.

Furthermore, my point about bias was simply that since contemporary scholars tend to be biased against apostolic succession, they often read the evidence as counting rather strongly against it, beyond what a fair assessment warrants. Of course Catholic/Orthodox apologists, and sometimes also scholars, often overstate the evidence for it. No dispute there.
The NT doesn’t claim it for the Church. The pastoral epistles probably come closest to providing any support for apostolic succession, but even they present problems. Titus teaches that an overseer must hold firmly to the message that he was taught.….and not that:
a) upon appointment, he will be given the gift of infallibility in conjunction with the other overseers of the church so that they won’t be able to stray from the message
b) He should develop the message that he was taught (using his gift of infallibility in conjunction with the other overseers of the church)
The message is preserved b/c that is what the appointee has demonstrated that he will do….before he gains office and not b/c of some special gift.
Again, I think you’re mistaking how much I claim for the evidence. All I’m saying is that the claim that local church leaders were appointed originally by the apostles is borne out by the Pastoral Epistles.

You will find modern Catholics and Orthodox similarly concerned that bishops preserve the faith–there is no guarantee that any individual bishop will do so.

The conviction that the bishops throughout the world will be guided by the Spirit to preserve the faith is a conclusion drawn from the promises given by Jesus to the Church, not specifically from the Pastoral Epistles.

The concept of “development” is certainly itself a development–it’s the only reasonable way to explain such things as the doctrine of the Trinity. But it wasn’t clearly articulated until relatively modern times, in the light of modern historical consciousness. That’s one of the disadvantages under which both sides labored in the Reformation, for instance–each tried to claim faithfulness to an unchanged, essentially undeveloped deposit of faith, when we can see looking back that this claim is absurd for both sides.
Ignatius claims an authority for the bishop (singular in his part of the empire), but doesn’t base that authority on apostolic succession. The bishop got his authority directly from God.
That’s your assumption, based on the broader assumption that whatever Ignatius doesn’t mention in relatively short letters wasn’t believed. He might well be assuming that everyone knew the apostolic origin of his office, given the short time that had elapsed between himself and the apostles. The point he’s establishing is that the bishop has a unique authority within the Church.
Clement mentions succession, but it isn’t a succession of monarchical bishops…it is a succession of groups of presbyters.
He does not clearly distinguish between the two, certainly.

Irenaeus puts the two ideas together explicitly for the first time.
The Didache has the congregation appointing its own leaders and apostles serving a missionary function.
Right. Though as I pointed out before, everyone agrees that congregations elected their leaders in the early Church. That’s entirely compatible with the idea of apostolic succession. The authority comes from the apostles, but the congregation chooses who will exercise that authority at any given time. That may or may not be the implicit idea in the Didache–the Didache is certainly odd in some respects by the standards of the second-century “Catholic” writers.
By the time that Irenaeus comes along, accurate information about how the leadership in Rome started and developed seems to be lost.
Seems to be lost if you start with skeptical presuppositions. Certainly Irenaeus seems to be shoehorning what may have been a more complex pattern of leadership in Rome into a “monarchical” pattern. But I think there are good reasons to believe that his list of Roman leaders is substantially accurate–it agrees with other, independent lists in substance, with the major difference being that some names occur in different orders. That is best explained by the hypothesis of concurrent leadership. So what was “lost” (or perhaps just downplayed by Irenaeus) was the fact that leadership was exercised by several at once–that doesn’t affect his basic point.
For something that is supposed to have been divinely instituted from the get go, it is rather confused.
I think you start with the assumption, again, that God works in very clear-cut ways. I see no reason to accept this assumption.
the ‘benefit of the doubt” should only go so far…and not very far at that. From their works do we see that the ECFs only reported history with accuracy? Do we see that they refrained from adding the product of their pious imaginations to the body of faith? If not, then their entitlement to a benefit of the doubt is very limited.
Pious imagination is not a bad thing–your statement, I think, once again starts from Protestant presuppositions as to which bits are “pious imagination” and as to how valuable such imagination is.

But once again, you miss my point, which is not that we should trust the ECF’s implicitly but that we should start by giving them the benefit of the doubt because we have to give that benefit to someone. We have to start with some cultural assumptions: either those which allow for continuity between us and the Fathers or those that don’t. And if we do the latter, then we must choose further between assumptions in continuity with those of the Reformers or a radically critical hermeneutic shaped by modern scholarship and/or American populist democracy and individualism.

I’m saying that the most reasonable approach in general is to start with a hermeneutic of basic continuity and see where it takes us. When I started doing that in my 20s, I found that the faith I had received from my family made a lot more sense, not less.

Furthermore, I’m saying that if you want to adopt a hermeneutic of discontinuity, you face a further burden of proof in explaining why you exempt from that hermeneutic one particular aspect of the patristic heritage (the NT canon). That makes sense if you’re starting with the early modern hermeneutic of the Reformers, which in itself seems a very odd place to start.

Edwin
 
Yes Sola Scritpura was misrepresented there. I am not pointing that out for my health. I am sure you would point out of someone misrepresented an belief that you have. Please show me the respect by not making a cop out on a misrepresentation done to my position.
I beg your pardon? Cop-out? I asked a simple question: If SS is mispresented,then tell me,which denominations out of thousands truly represents SS? Is it a priniciple or a doctrine?
No need to get all bet out-of-shape over a simple question posed at you.
I hold to Sola Scriptura as understood and represented by the reformers and doctrine in such creeds such as the Westminster Confession of faith, The London Baptist Confession of faith and the Thirty-Nine Articles. It seems to me you are unaware of what Protestants believe or never read or studied their writings on this issue.
Which Protestants? All Protestants believe in the same thing? If so,then why the need to spilt into thousands of factions? Apparently you have turned the blind eye to deny the facts Protestanism is divided over many issues. Luther and Calvin shared the same beliefs about the Eucharist?
Quote:Nicea325
And when will you answer my question? Show me the chapter and verse where the Bible explicitly states it is SUPREME over the church? Here…let me use your own criteria:
The question there is a logical fallacy.
Nice dodge again, I do not think so! I have already rebuked your “logical fallacy” argument and with ease. It is very LOGICAL!
It is asking me to prove a universal negative. Look up logical fallacy arguments.
It has nothing to do with a negative,positive or a neutral but with pure logical,which you simply cannot formulate to support your position of Scripture being supreme over the church,plain and simple.
The positive aspect of my belief is the fact of the nature and divine quality of Scripture which stands as the basis of Sola Scriptura
.

Yep! Protestanism at its best: Self-centered…my belief…what I say it is…because I say so. Just lke all the wondeful early reformers: Calvin,Zwingli,Knox. The me…me…me position. No wonder the divisions never end. Well I got news for you,nature and divine quality does not verbally express in Scripture those are the qualifying factors to prove it is SUPREME over the church. Those are your words…not Scripture.
What we do find in Scripture is the church can fall in to some doctrinal error thus showing it is not error free. After all the epistles of Paul for example were largely correcting doctrinal errors
.

Well glad to know you have expressed your profound misunderstandings about Christ church. Correcting doctrinal errors is not a reflection on Christ Church but on people who push their own agendas over the will of the church. Try reading history a bit more on doctrinal development. It is usually referred to as heresies and schims. Christ promised guide His Church through the Holy Spirit…never said Scripture-alone is the ONLY solution or supreme over His Church because He promised to send the Holy Spirit strictly to Scripture.
We see doctrinal errors in several of the 7 churches of Revelation 2 and 3 which shows my point.
And? We have had doctrinal errors from the first century which proves exactly the opposite of what you argue about. Precisely why the church held ecumenical councils to define and ratify orthodox doctrines as oppose to heterdox doctrines. I wonder who helped Christ Church define and make official doctrines as the Incarnation and Trinity? The Holy Spirit.
The burden of proof is on you to show that the visible church universal is infallible in teaching and you cant.
Wrong! The burden lies on you alone for declaring Scripture is SUPREME and you cannot do it because you have no evidence. I have nothing to prove because history has shown it is the church ALONE which has defined and ratified doctrines. And how? Through scripture,Tradition and ding…ding…ding Christ Church. No mention at ANY council of the Bible alone because according to you it is supreme.
We have the Arian councils which clearly shows that the church can error.
Bad example and again confusion on your part. Does not matter who held what heretical council outside the orthodox church. The church ratified doctrines (Incarnation,Trinity,etc) and if some choose to still go down the wrong path it does not prove the orthodox church is still at error. It is called REBELLION…I thought you read the Bible?
Doctrinal error was around in each of the 5 Sees in church history.
Really? So tell me what doctrinal error was ratified and made official, later to be rejected at each of the 5 ancient Sees? I am not sure what history you are reading.
You have the burden to prove that post-apostolic sacred doctrinal oral tradition inspired by God. I am not againist traditon I just hold that post-apostolic tradition is lower in authority than that of Scripture
.

The classic case of “I cannot support my position,so let me turn the tables around.” No! All of the burden falls on you to show us Catholics/Orthodox where God Himself or the 12 Apostles taught and said Scripture is SUPREME over the church? As of today you have not and will NEVER will be able to defend a bogus man-made doctrine called Sola Scriptura.
Your argument is nothing new by any Protestant.
Quote:Nicea325
My main concern is it’s errors and it being outside the time of the apostles.
Therefore it must be Apostolic in origin-right? Chapter and verse…please
Let’s see we have Ephesians 2:20 on who it states as the foundation of the church. Hence the Apostles and the prophets. The foundation is already made. This would cover the old testament prophets and the apostles and their delegates who are directly connected to them.
I see no where in that passage stating Scripture is SUPREME over the church.

So please…chapter and verse Scripture is SUPREME over the church? You believe it is Biblical then please showo us that revelation from God so the rest can believe: Scripture is SUPREME over the church.
 
I’m a bit baffled by your argument here.
well, you are a bright enough fellow, so the problem probably lies with me…hopefully it is that I haven’t explained myself sufficiently (as opposed to simply being out to lunch) In any event, I am playing hockey tonight and then my brother is passing through town…and both things trump this thread. I’ll return to it this weekend (if the hockey doesn’t kill me) and hopefully you’ll have the patience to track down my further comments amidst all the others and to respond in kind.

Cheers
 
I see serious problems with your starting point in that it sounds like everything might be run through the “ECFs can’t have erred” lens or the “it is exceedingly unlikely that the ECFs have erred” lens…or at least some lens in that vein.
I would restate this as “it’s likely that the ECFs are right in their basic claims about the nature of the Faith, unless proven otherwise” (you’re overstating my confidence in them a bit).

My point in this argument is that that should be our lens precisely because they’re the ones we trust for the canon in the first place. I don’t think you’ve really addressed that argument. It seems to me that you keep ascribing to me a stronger position than I have argued for and arguing against that. I think you’re also coming from a more “modern” epistemological stance than I am. I’m convinced by folks like Kuhn and MacIntyre, which is not to say that I’m a relativist who doesn’t think truth exists outside ourselves, just that I don’t think we have any access to truth apart from a particular hermeneutic mediated by a tradition. We can switch and compare and tweak traditions, but we can’t do any of this from a neutral standpoint outside and over against all of them.
well since you brought up Mormonism, if we come across a doctrine/claim for the first time within the historical record and merely give the benefit of the doubt to whoever is putting forward that doctrine at some later date (b/c the adherents claim apostolic authority for the fellow)…then to what extent have we distinguished ourselves from Mormonism?
In the greatest extent possible, because the basic claim of Mormonism is that the Church has apostasized and has now been restored.

I would say that Mormons are more consistent than Protestants (or more precisely, than Protestants who remain basically within some form of orthodox Christianity broadly defined, since I’d call Mormons Protestants). They draw the correct conclusion that if the tradition has gone as bad as most forms of Protestantism logically require you to conclude, then the only thing that could allow us to be Christians today would be a divine act restoring apostolic Christianity miraculously. Their claims about the particular nature of this divine act are, to my mind, totally implausible. (Similarly, the KJV-only folks draw the reasonable conclusion that if the canon is as important as conservative Protestantism says, then God must have preserved the right textual tradition and infallibly inspired a particular translation. Both positions shed some ironic light on the way more moderate forms of Protestantism try to avoid the logic of their own premises.)
fair enough, but only if we admit the possibility of error by the historic Church…such is required for an actual and honest assessment . Without that, we would only be going through the motions for an essentially predetermined result
And yet again, isn’t the same true, on your premises, for the canon? I find most Protestant discussions of the canon utterly lacking in integrity. They “pretend” to analyze the matter historically, but we all know where they’ll end up. All 27 books will turn out to be apostolic (or near enough for rock and roll) in origin, historically accurate, theologically coherent with each other, etc. Never mind that every scholar who doesn’t approach the text with the relevant theological presuppositions fails to come to these conclusions in one way or another.

The Catholic position is more reasonable because it is honest about the presupposition. It says, rightly understood: “we stand within the Tradition and we ask if it makes sense, and it does, so we stay within it.” It doesn’t pretend to objectivity. (Some misguided apologists, trying to ape the Protestants, do pretend to objectivity, but there’s nothing about the Catholic position that requires them to do so.)

A Catholic–or a Christian in general, or an adherent of any other purportedly revealed religion–doesn’t need to start with an “open mind” about the error of her faith’s basic claims in order to proceed honestly. All that’s necessary is a willingness to look at all the evidence and see if one can make it fit into one’s starting paradigm, and a refusal to be dishonest about the evidence that doesn’t fit. Such evidence isn’t automatic reason to discard one’s paradigm. You put it on a shelf marked “difficulties” and you try to find some way to explain it. Maybe you die never finding such a way. If eventually a lot of these “difficulties” pile up, and a paradigm comes along that explains them without having worse difficulties of its own, then perhaps you “convert” to the new paradigm.

That’s an intellectually honest, critical approach to the faith, and it’s *easier *for Catholics than for conservative Protestants, precisely because of the issue under discussion. In other words, precisely one of the “difficulties” for Protestants is the disconnect between their trust in the early Church’s canon and their lack of trust in the early Church in other ways. That pushes Protestants to claim a kind of objectivity (to ground their acceptance of the canon) that doesn’t match how their acceptance of the canon actually works.
it provides a reasonable source for the thing observed….a more reasonable source IMHO than divine institution
But I didn’t claim “divine” institution per se. I agree with Sullivan, whom you mention below, that that’s a matter of faith. What I claimed was that apostolic institution, while not provable, is the most reasonable way to explain the evidence. Just as I think, over against the majority of NT scholars, that the most reasonable way to explain the Gospels is that they are really based closely on eyewitness testimony; and just as I think that the most reasonable way to explain the claim that Jesus rose from the dead is that the tomb really was found empty and that the disciples really encountered Jesus in some form that didn’t match their concept of a “ghost” or vision. In all three cases, these claims about a matter of fact support faith claims (divine authorization for the episcopacy, divine inspiration of the Gospels, and divine action raising Jesus from the dead) but do not prove them, both because they are themselves probable conclusions only and because the phenomena could be explained otherwise (the resurrection would be hardest to explain, of course, but some sort of Hindu framework would probably do it).
well then, if it is based on practicality or common sense, then it can be eliminated as soon as it is no longer the most practical form of governance
Again, you’re confusing a claim about how episcopacy started with a claim about the basis for its continuance. Apostles aren’t still going around selecting successors, so the question of whether that continues to be the best way to choose bishops is completely irrelevant. From very early times bishops were elected.

The point about the origin of the episcopacy is that according to Irenaeus “we” i.e., late-second-century Christians) know that the first bishops were the rightful leaders of the Church because they were chosen by the apostles. That was a one-time event. Irenaeus then claims that this authority has been passed on, but it wasn’t passed on necessarily by the bishops then choosing their successors. Usually it was passed on by the people/presbyters of the local church electing someone and the other bishops of the area then laying hands on that person. The laying on of hands, if I remember rightly, isn’t mentioned (or at least isn’t stressed) by Irenaeus, but it’s the traditional sacramental sign (which is to say a sign that conveys reality), and as a sign of commissioning for ministry it has clear NT support.
no, I expect that God would work w/i the culture, but then I wouldn’t go on to insist that God would forever employ that same model for all subsequent cultures
And indeed, the way in which bishops were chosen has varied.
good, and I am not willing to make a mechanical succession a criterion of validity either
exactly
You say “mechanical.” I say “incarnational.”
that’s a good point…but the early Church’s assumptions aren’t necessarily valid either
or we could note that assumptions are involved and strive to determine whether there is any justification for making the assumptions… earlier assumptions are not valid simply b/c of their earliness
But the more of the early assumptions that are wrong, the more “pressure” there is on the overall Christian paradigm.
that seems to be what Sullivan tried to do (with a slight Catholic bias) in From Apostles to Bishops and he doesn’t seem to be nearly as insistent as do you. He found the historical evidence lacking, but salvaged apostolic succession on the basis of theological arguments (this is exactly where bias can most easily have an affect).
I admit that I haven’t read the book (that I remember, which means that I didn’t read it carefully through but may have picked it up and looked at it at some point). But this review, if accurate, indicates to me that Sullivan agrees with me pretty much exactly. I think you’re overestimating how “strong” my claims are. I certainly don’t think one can prove divine institution, but one can show that apostolic succession makes sense in the NT context (i.e., as you admit, there is certainly an idea similar to it in the Pastorals), is in continuity with NT teaching, and is concurrent with the development of the canon as a way of preserving apostolic teaching (which is precisely my point in this entire discussion).
 
So how exactly is he “not nearly as insistent”? His tone is no doubt different because he’s engaging in a work of scholarship, and I’m engaged in an online argument. If you look at how I have responded to Catholics who overstate the evidence for their position, I think you’ll find that my overall tone isn’t as “insistent” as it appears in this context.
this is quite the spin. Please remember that this is supposed to be a miraculous chain of succession
I don’t think it’s strictly miraculous. Providential and sacramentally grace-filled, rather.
that extends from Christ and the apostles through to the current bishops including the Pope. One doesn’t judge the quality of a chain based on how shiny and sound the last few links are.
No, indeed. But as you admit, on the Catholic hypothesis the “chain” doesn’t depend on the “shininess” of the links.

At the Reformation many people concluded that the chain was broken, not simply because of the immorality of the Popes but because of their apparent corruption of the Gospel. Bear in mind that the chain in question is the preservation of the Gospel. 500 years later it now appears that

a. Many of the “essential” elements of the Gospel claimed by the Reformers are just particular, culturally shaped readings of the Gospel with plenty of flaws of their own;
b. Protestant churches have been subject to plenty of “corruption” of their own, so that in many ways Rome often functions, even by Protestant standards, as a measuring rod that helps call us back to greater faithfulness (the former was certainly envisioned by the Reformers, but I really don’t think the latter was, in any serious way); and
c. Catholic doctrine has “developed” in such a way that ideas that appeared indefensible at the time now just seem to have been formulated in some flawed, overly legalistic ways, with the basic principles turning out not just to be salvageable but actually far superior to the Protestant principle that criticized them. More precisely, in many cases Protestants turned out to accept some of the basic flaws of the Catholic doctrines they criticized, and writing those flaws more fundamentally into their doctrine than was case in the original Catholic doctrine. An obvious case is the idea of imputation in the doctrine of justification, which is basically taken from the doctrine of indulgences–where indulgences say that Christ’s merits and those of the saints may be “transferred” for the remission of temporal punishment based on devotional acts, sola fide says that Christ’s merits alone are transferred, on the basis of faith alone, for the purpose of remission of all the guilt and penalty of all one’s sins, past, present, and future. The idea of a “transfer of merit,” which is the fundamental flaw in late medieval indulgence theology in the first place, has been put on a sounder basis but in so doing has been expanded and given a far more fundamental place in Christian theology. Thus, Catholicism can simply say “well, the whole ‘transfer of merit’ business is too financial/legalistic–let’s find another way of expressing the truth that the communion of the saints contributes to our sanctification through use of the means of grace.” Classical Protestants, on the other hand, have committed themselves to the idea that imputation is the heart of the Gospel.

The proclamation of the Gospel by recent Popes (not just their general integrity and holiness–obviously that’s a witness too, but not the most relevant point to which I was appealing) is a dramatic summary of the preceding reasoning. In other words, the Reformation was justified because Rome had hopelessly corrupted the Gospel. It turns out that some of the “reforming” moves actually embedded problematic late medieval theology even more deeply into the structure of Protestantism than had been the case in medieval Catholicism (kind of like the warnings they give you about removing ear wax with a cotton-wool probe), and that Catholicism was quite capable, given time, of figuring out that some bits of its heritage needed tweaking and that the Protestants made some very good points if rightly understood in relation to previous tradition.

On the Protestant hypothesis, that seems unlikely. So to put it simply: I think Catholicism explains Protestantism better than vice versa.
Men of integrity are exactly what the pastorals specified….they should be the norm and not a thing that contrasts so dramatically with corrupted links of the past that one is awed by the change.
Again, you misunderstand my point. And I think you have a far more optimistic view of the church in general than I do. If you live within a church context that allows you to demand integrity and holiness of your pastors (on condition of leaving the church and finding a better one) without falling into a destructive pattern of arrogance and lack of charity, then I applaud you. I myself lived within a radically Protestant context for 20+ years. I was shaped by it and knew many of its diverse corners. And I found, consistently, that “Donatist” principles lead exactly where St. Augustine said they lead–to endless division and to a subversion of the principle of charity. The tragic commitment of Catholics to a deeply corrupted church doesn’t appeal to shiny American optimism. But I see no alternative to it if we are going to live the lives of charity and humility that we are called to live as Christians, and if we are going to take Jesus’ call to unity seriously.
Plausibility points are not gained by now having what should have always been.
It depends on what the “plausibility” is. If the debate is whether the Gospel has been corrupted in a way that can’t be reformed without the RCC ceasing to exist as we know it, then the proclamation of the Gospel by recent Popes does gain quite a few “plausibility” points. You’re talking about something quite different than what I’m talking about.
Further, one should note the modern media’s coverage of the Pope’s election and his actions in office and also the freedom of Catholics to now go elsewhere. Given that coverage and freedom, is it even reasonable to expect that the modern Popes could be anything but shiny links?
Sure it is. I note the distinct lack of shininess of many Catholic and Protestant clergy in spite of said coverage and freedom!

But again, you mistake the specific point I’m making about the Gospel for something much vaguer.
and then I note that the qualities of an apostles that could be less subjectively measured (as in the mark of an apostle to do miracles and the possession of an impeccability/fruits of the HS of an astounding level so as to be consistent with the unique presence of the HS that is claimed for the office and its gift) are exactly the things that the Catholics say weren’t passed on…. seems just a little too convenient.
I think that the things you say could be measured are actually fairly difficult to measure. I mean, it’s easy to say that the Renaissance Popes weren’t impeccable or even remarkably holy, so sure, on that level. . . . but obviously we could argue over whether JPII exhibited remarkable fruit of the Spirit or was just a charismatic person in the secular sense of the word. (I certainly think the former, but I wouldn’t claim that it’s “objective.” Indeed, I don’t put much stock in the idea of “objectivity”!) And similarly, whether certain Renaissance Popes were as depraved as legend has it or just flawed people trying to do a difficult job is a matter of some dispute.

But certainly you put your finger on the parallel difficulty in Catholicism to the difficulty I’ve been pointing out in Protestantism. In other words, Catholics say that God preserves the Church from formal doctrinal error while allowing all kinds of moral corruption and failure in properly articulating and proclaiming the Gospel. This is a serious difficulty in Catholicism, and if you were to engage in the unenviable task of reading my posts consistently you’d see that I’ve argued this point with Catholics over and over. They tend to be way too blind to the difficulty.

However, in the final analysis I think the Catholic position is more reasonable. Largely I conclude this based on my own experience, mentioned above, with Donatist or quasi-Donatist forms of Protestantism. When I discovered St. Augustine’s anti-Donatist arguments as a teenager, they were spiritually life-saving, because I realized that my discontent both with the sectarian ecclesiology of many of my fundamentalist friends and neighbors and with the radical spiritualism of my family (an “invisible Church” ecclesiology taken very far indeed) resonated with the teaching of this great theologian of the early Church, and that the issues I dealt with had been faced by the early Church.

If you find some kind of Donatist ecclesiology to “work,” in terms of allowing the building of a Christian community committed to unity with other Christians and fostering charity and humility among its members, then by all means go for it. I’ll do my best to foster unity as I believe God guides me to do, and you do it as God guides you to do it, and hopefully some day in glory we’ll find out which of us was right–or we’ll joyfully acknowledge that we were both more wrong than we could have imagined!

But based on my own experience and my reading of Scripture and the Christian tradition, I stand by my conclusion that Donatist ecclesiology is radically destructive.

Edwin
 
well, you are a bright enough fellow, so the problem probably lies with me
Oh, I could say the same. I think we’re talking past each other, because we are starting from different presuppositions.

I’ve spent far too long responding to this–I’m fine with you taking a while to respond, or never doing so. I ought to be doing other things with my life too!

But your challenge to my position is thoughtful and articulate–you force me to deal with a perspective that I rejected a long time ago and that I rarely see articulated as well as you have done.

God bless,

Edwin
 
The classic case of “I cannot support my position,so let me turn the tables around.” No! All of the burden falls on you to show us Catholics/Orthodox where God Himself or the 12 Apostles taught and said Scripture is SUPREME over the church? As of today you have not and will NEVER will be able to defend a bogus man-made doctrine called Sola Scriptura.
Your argument is nothing new by any Protestant.

So please…chapter and verse Scripture is SUPREME over the church? You believe it is Biblical then please showo us that revelation from God so the rest can believe: Scripture is SUPREME over the church.
It’s interesting - when you ask some (not all) protestants about sola scriptura, they (though again, not all) will point to the Westminster Confessions, or the Thirty-Nine Articles, etc. They (again, not all) almost NEVER point to scripture to describe their beliefs with regard to sola scriptura.

As I’ve said before… the beauty of protestantism is that it is a moving target. Protestants don’t ever really have to defend anything, because they can just say “well, we don’t believe that, OTHER protestants might, but we don’t.” Or, “it’s a hermeneutic principle, not a doctrine, blah-blah-blah…”

I would put my life on the line for the beliefs put forward by the Body of Christ (i.e., the Catholic Church), and I wonder how many protestants can or would say the same…
 
I don’t think we need to prove that the Bible teaches sola scriptura. As has been said before, there are other authorities besides the Bible. This is a weakness of the name sola scriptura which could be seen to imply otherwise; perhaps it should be renamed. However, if I have time, this weekend I’ll go on a sola scriptura scripture hunt to see what I can come up with for you. How does that sound?

Let me ask you something? Do you think you can prove infallibility (of anything) based on fallible evidence? I think you should be able. Let us take the spiral argument. Historical research is fallible (I assume there are no arguments here). Yet some Catholics use it to determine the reliability of the Matthew for determining Jesus’ words. They then use the conclusion, “Matthew is reliable” to say that Jesus found an infallible Church etc. etc. Now, this is a perfectly legitimate piece of evidence for the infallibility of the Church. However, this only works because of faith in the results of fallible (but reliable) processes. If you accept this type of argument, then it is necessary to recognize the validity of the Protestant type of argument that we can prove sola scriptura through the use of fallible sources (including tradition, 39 articles, etc.). BTW, I know most Protestant act as if sola scirptura is de facto infallible, but I know very few which would claim that.

**True, in the original context, this verse was only talking about the Septuagint (which is why I agree with the inclusion of the 7 “deutero-canonical” books). However, given that the NT has been determined to be Scripture, can this verse be expanded to include the NT as well?**Side Questions: I have heard this theory before, but I was always confused as to its purpose. Does it really matter if we say Paul was or was not converted? There was certainly a change in any case. And for some clarification, if we say Paul was not converted what about the 3000 at Pentecost or Jews who become believers today; are (were) they not-converted as well? Anyway, back to the discussion at hand.
Ah, but there is an important distinction between oral tradition and quotations in the NT. Others could interpret the OT, but Paul was inspired by the Holy Spirit in (certain?) of his writings. Now, I am not exactly sure what the Catholic model of inspiration is, but I take this to mean that either Paul wrote something and the Holy Spirit put a stamp of approval on it or Paul was somehow led by the Holy Spirit to write his own words and the very words of God (I lean toward the latter). This is important because I believe that the same Spirit who inspired Scripture, is at work within each Christian, enabling her/him to recognize and interpret Scripture.

I actually found myself agreeing with most of this paragraph. However, I would question the bolded statement. If we believe that Tradition did in fact get something wrong, or if they added something that was contradictory to Scripture (I said if:thumbsup:), then a judgment must be made. It is clear to those of us who hold sola scriptura that Scripture will always be the winner.
Experts do give us evidence for our views. The problem is experts disagree, but we still have to make a decision. This should always be done in humility if we ourselves are not experts (and do not have the OHCAC to back us up). But there are experts. And every Christian has the Holy Spirit, an authority which should not be underestimated.
Yes,

You bring up a good point. While I believe that the passage in Timothy only states that the Septuagint is inspired to stretch it to the NT, there has to be someone or something authoratative to state with certainty that it is so. This is Verbum Dei where you will see that what you say has been done.
SACRED SCRIPTURE, ITS INSPIRATION AND DIVINE INTERPRETATION
  1. Those divinely revealed realities which are contained and presented in Sacred Scripture have been committed to writing under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. For holy mother Church, relying on the belief of the Apostles (see John 20:31; 2 Tim. 3:16; 2 Peter 1:19-20, 3:15-16), holds that the books of both the Old and New Testaments in their entirety, with all their parts, are sacred and canonical because written under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, they have God as their author and have been handed on as such to the Church herself.(1) In composing the sacred books, God chose men and while employed by Him (2) they made use of their powers and abilities, so that with Him acting in them and through them, (3) they, as true authors, consigned to writing everything and only those things which He wanted. (4)
Therefore the NT is inspired because the OHCAC says so.
 
It’s interesting - when you ask some (not all) protestants about sola scriptura, they (though again, not all) will point to the Westminster Confessions, or the Thirty-Nine Articles, etc. They (again, not all) almost NEVER point to scripture to describe their beliefs with regard to sola scriptura.

As I’ve said before… the beauty of protestantism is that it is a moving target. Protestants don’t ever really have to defend anything, because they can just say “well, we don’t believe that, OTHER protestants might, but we don’t.” Or, “it’s a hermeneutic principle, not a doctrine, blah-blah-blah…”

I would put my life on the line for the beliefs put forward by the Body of Christ (i.e., the Catholic Church), and I wonder how many protestants can or would say the same…
For the life of me, I simply cannot grasp how anyone believes Scripture is SUPREME over the church;and yet, not a single word from the Bible ever makes such a loud declaration. If it is Biblical therefore it must have been said and taught from the get-go,but I am still waiting to read those important passages proving me wrong? Such a strong belief but not ONE ecumenical council ever discusses it or mentions it briefly? Truly mind boggling.🤷
 
For the life of me, I simply cannot grasp how anyone believes Scripture is SUPREME over the church;and yet, not a single word from the Bible ever makes such a loud declaration. If it is Biblical therefore it must have been said and taught from the get-go,but I am still waiting to read those important passages proving me wrong? Such a strong belief but not ONE ecumenical council ever discusses it or mentions it briefly? Truly mind boggling.🤷
Cmon you guys. When I was involved in Protestant Bible studies, Protestant Church services, Potlucks, Wednesday night services, Friday mens services…didn’t they tell you that the “True Church” was underground…🙂 At least that is what I learned.
 
Cmon you guys. When I was involved in Protestant Bible studies, Protestant Church services, Potlucks, Wednesday night services, Friday mens services…didn’t they tell you that the “True Church” was underground…🙂 At least that is what I learned.
I’m :mad:!!! Next Tuesday evening at our left-handed-men-who-wear-glasses service, I plan to confront my pastor as to how he, being infallible, could have forgotten to tell me that the true Church was underground!!! ( Right after I eat some of Mrs. Hilda’s tuna casserole, which is really good. )

Jon
 
didn’t they tell you that the “True Church” was underground…🙂
Oh without a doubt. This IMHO this becomes another vague extension of history. The Catacombs, Russia with Communism, China etc. We do gain a glimse of the persecuted underground church.

Some extremists claim if we can’t as a Nation in the USA overcome the secular, socialist agenda, then too this may a reality in the future.

However, there is no getting around the visability of the Apostolic Churchs. Rome etc, we see the living breathing Church.
 
I’m :mad:!!! Next Tuesday evening at our left-handed-men-who-wear-glasses service, I plan to confront my pastor as to how he, being infallible, could have forgotten to tell me that the true Church was underground!!! ( Right after I eat some of Mrs. Hilda’s tuna casserole, which is really good. )

Jon
I’ve never been to a Lutheran get-together that didn’t have a three-bean-salad.

What about you?
 
I’m :mad:!!! Next Tuesday evening at our left-handed-men-who-wear-glasses service, I plan to confront my pastor as to how he, being infallible, could have forgotten to tell me that the true Church was underground!!! ( Right after I eat some of Mrs. Hilda’s tuna casserole, which is really good. )

Jon
:rotfl:
 
=stewstew03;9436174]It’s interesting - when you ask some (not all) protestants about sola scriptura, they (though again, not all) will point to the Westminster Confessions, or the Thirty-Nine Articles, etc. They (again, not all) almost NEVER point to scripture to describe their beliefs with regard to sola scriptura.
And I’ve never understood why Catholics NEVER point to Orthodox understanding of Tradition regarding the universal jurisdiction when talking about the pope! :rolleyes:
As I’ve said before… the beauty of protestantism is that it is a moving target. Protestants don’t ever really have to defend anything, because they can just say “well, we don’t believe that, OTHER protestants might, but we don’t.” Or, “it’s a hermeneutic principle, not a doctrine, blah-blah-blah…”
If the Lutheran understanding is a “moving target”, why is it the same now as it was in 1580?
I would put my life on the line for the beliefs put forward by the Body of Christ (i.e., the Catholic Church), and I wonder how many protestants can or would say the same…
Would you “put your life on the line” for the beliefs put forward by other communions in Apostolic Succession, who believe in the Tradtion and Scripture, but dispute Catholic teaching about the infallibility ex cathedra of the Pope? No? Then why would you exepct me to “put my life on the line” for the teachings of another communion regarding sola scriptura?

Sorry, Stew. This is a nice polemic, but that’s all it is. If I want to know what Catholics think, I won’t ask an Old Catholic. If I want to know what Lutherans think, I won’t read the Westminster Confession. For the same reason.
Believe in the teachings of the CC for the right reasons, not because you incorrectly think that protestantism is/was a single communion divided and splintered. It never was.

Jon
 
If the Lutheran understanding is a “moving target”, why is it the same now as it was in 1580?
Hey Jon (in NC) - I actually had you in mind when I parenthetically wrote “not all.” I think it’s great that the Lutheran tradition of sola scriptura hasn’t changed in 430 years. But surely you have seen (and can understand) our frustration when we have these discussions about protestant doctrine and we have to deal with it on multiple fronts - Lutheran, Calvinist, and their many offspring - it is, in fact, a moving target (though not in a temporal manner).
Would you “put your life on the line” for the beliefs put forward by other communions in Apostolic Succession, who believe in the Tradtion and Scripture, but dispute Catholic teaching about the infallibility ex cathedra of the Pope?
Absolutely.
Sorry, Stew. This is a nice polemic, but that’s all it is.
You’re right it is polemic, my apologies Jon. I was borrowing a quote from another Martin Luther (King, Jr) who said: "If you haven’t found something worth dying for, you aren’t fit to be living.” I was not trying to fan the flames of discord, but wanted to make the point that as we (all Christians) continue to shape and mold Christ to fit our wants and needs, we will dilute Him to the point that we will empty His death and resurrection of its redemptive meaning.
 
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