Precisely why they are called "protest"ant due to their protesting…
Actually, as I and others have pointed out on this forum multiple times, that’s not where the term originates at all.
More to the point, what I’m saying is that Luther in particular claimed not to be protesting his Catholic theological training on this particular issue, but to be following it. The supreme authority of Scripture was a tenet of medieval scholasticism. Of course, that was in the context of the authority of the Church.
Sola Scriptura isn’t really a “new” teaching so much as it’s what’s left when you lose faith in the Church. In that sense it’s entirely different from sola fide, which is a genuine innovation.
I do not believe that statment by Vatican II is saying what you are claiming.
I don’t think you understand what I am claiming. I think we’re talking past each other.
Now I repeat: That statement by Vatican II does not explicitly state,listen carefully…WRITTEN SCRIPTURE ALONE is SUPREME over the church.
Certainly not. Nor did I.
Never does it make an isolated statement in reference to the WRITTEN Word of God. That is my point. It says written and oral and the church serves it.
No dispute there. I’ve pointed this out myself repeatedly on this thread.
The interesting semantic question here is whether we can say “Scripture has authority over the Church” because the Word of God does, even though the Word of God includes “more” than just Scripture. I think there are two parts to this question:
- Is the relationship between Scripture and the Word of God that of a part to a whole? and if the answer to this question is “yes,” then
- If Y is part of X, and X has authority over Z, does Y have authority over Z?
I’ll take the second one first, because it’s intrinsically interesting. Could one say, for instance, that the Book of Isaiah has authority over the Church? I think one could. Perhaps it would be a little harder, intuitively, to justify “the Book of Ruth has authority over the Church,” but in principle I think it would be true. Or would it be correct to say that apostolic succession has authority over the Church? I think it would.
So even if the answer to question 1 is “yes,” I would argue that it’s still correct to say that written Scripture has authority over the Church, in the same way that individual bits of Scripture or Tradition have authority over the Church. But of course this would need to be qualified by saying “they have authority as parts of a whole.”
However, I don’t accept this interpretation. I recognize that there are two ways of understanding Catholic teaching here. At the Council of Trent, some folks I believe wanted to say that the Word of God is found “partly” in Scripture and “partly” in Tradition." The language that prevailed was rather that of “both. . . . and” which left unresolved the question of whether Scripture is just part of Tradition or not.
Vatican II’s language seems to me to lean
away from the “partly . . . partly” understanding, and certainly some of the major modern Catholic writers on this subject, including folks who were influential at Vatican II like Yves Congar, have rejected this interpretation. It’s pretty common to find contemporary Catholic apologists accepting the “material sufficiency of Scripture.” And many of the Fathers seem to have done so as well (hence the arsenal of prooftexts that some Protestant apologists amass in order to argue, mistakenly, that the Fathers endorsed a full-blown doctrine of Sola Scriptura).
According to the “material sufficiency” position, Scripture and “Tradition” are two
modes in which the same divinely revealed truth is conveyed. Hence, the language of part and whole doesn’t apply.
I recognize that this isn’t binding Catholic teaching–Catholics differ among themselves on this point. But on this understanding, it doesn’t make sense to qualify the statement “Scripture has authority over the Church,” any more than it would make sense to qualify the statement “Tradition has authority over the Church.”
Of course, it’s still important to say that Scripture has authority over the Church when rightly interpreted in the context of the Tradition.
But here’s the thing: as I see it, that ought to be the natural, basic meaning of “Scripture.” Scripture in its right and proper sense is Scripture-as-the-written-form-of-Tradition. Hence when speaking to Catholics and assuming the truth of Catholic teaching as set forth in Dei Verbum, I shouldn’t have to make qualifications.
You and others are repeatedly assuming that I’m using “Scripture” in the Protestant sense. But I’m not. And that should have been clear from the way I’ve been using Dei Verbum.
Scripture “alone” is simply Scripture-wrongly-interpreted.
It shouldn’t be necessary to say “when I say Scripture has authority, I don’t mean that mistaken interpretations of Scripture that remove it from its proper theological context have authority.”
Similarly (though the two cases aren’t identical because of the part/whole issue I mentioned above), to say “Vatican II has authority” doesn’t mean “an interpretation of Vatican II that sets it up in opposition to earlier Catholic teaching” has authority. Some Catholics have mistakenly interpreted Vatican II that way. But that’s not the proper way to speak of a Council’s teaching.
Edwin