I'm Orthodox, ask me anything

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It wasn’t, it’s the Orthodox perspective. If you do not like this thread, please, just leave.
 
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Nope, you will not tell me what to do. Your post violated conduct rule #5. Plain and simple.
 
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It did not… Yes, the language was blunt, but it is the Orthodox perspective. And I’m not telling you what to do. But I kindly ask you to remove yourself from the thread. You have become incredibly hostile and rude to not only me, but others in this thread. Your false accusations will not hold up here. And for the betterment of your spirituality, I highly suggest you remove yourself from this thread. Thank you.
 
My Orthodox (OCA) relatives see a lot more common ground than you seem to… a lot of your rejections of Catholic doctrines seem to be based on polemics that oversimplify Catholic doctrine. All Byzantine Orthodox theology is found within Catholicism and deemed compatible with Catholicism.
 
Frankly I have found the Roman Catholic attempt at reconciliation by trying to appeal to Orthodox doctrine as weak. Latin theology is not compatible with Orthodox theology. Uniatism (that is what we deem it though I understand in certain contexts it’s pejorative which I will not use here) will not solve the problem. Certainly didn’t solve it the first time seeing that there was a schism. We cannot truly be one until your church recants of what we consider Latin heresies and accepts Orthodoxy.
 
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I’m glad that the Orthodox Christians I know in real life havent taken this triumphant approach. Eastern Catholics live and breathe Orthodox theology while in communion with Rome.
 
The Catholic Church understands that the Eastern tradition expresses first that it is characteristic of the Father to be the first origin of the Spirit. By confessing the Spirit as he “who takes his origin from the Father” (" ek tou Patros ekporeuomenon " cf. Jn 15:26), it affirms that he comes from the Father through the Son.

1995 Pontifical Commission Report on the Filioque

 
This definition is taken from the Council of Florence, but this article here:

http://orthodoxyinfo.org/CouncilOfFlorence.htm

explains why Orthodox still reject this definition as heretical.

Here is an excerpt:
Latin theology teaches a Trinity of persons subsisting in the one undivided nature or essence, thus reducing the persons to relations of paternity, sonship and active and passive spiration. Orthodox theology on the other hand hangs on the patristic terms the only source of the super-essential Godhead is the Father (Saint Dionysius)55 and The only source of Godhead is the Father (Saint Athanasius)56 The Latins, following Augustine, who defined the essence of God to be simplicity (unity),57 defined God as Actus Purus. 58 Aquinas in his fivefold proof for the existence of God followed pagan Greek Philosophy and declared that there must be a first mover, unmoved, a first cause in the chain of causes. For Roman Catholic Scholastic Theology, God is this unmoved cause. Their theology became a theology of Being, and God was then subjected to a theology which was governed by categories and laws of being. Everything from the first principle down to the last detail was thought of as likewise determined by these laws and categories, and thus deducible in a logically consistent manner which in effect was Aristotelian.
I encourage you to read the rest. You will understand why even this is still a problem.
 
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But to answer your question, those churches are no more in communion with the Orthodox Church than the Polish National Catholic Church or the Old Catholic Church are in communion with the Roman Catholic Church.
I understand that there are questions about the Macedonian Orthodox church and the various Ukrainian Orthodox churches?
 
Eastern Catholics accept Papal Supremacy and other Roman Catholic dogmas. They are a Latinized to the core even if they don’t appear on the outside.
 
Follow what the Church teaches, and the Church bases her doctrines off of the Church Fathers and Ecumenical Councils as well as of course scripture which is interpreted by the Church through the Fathers and Councils.
And for those less intellegent than you how is this done?

Peace!!!
 
Another excerpt:
To all the arguments of the Latins that when they teach that the Holy Spirit proceeds from both the Father and the Son, they do not teach two causes of the Holy Spirit but one, Saint Mark answered, and is it possible for one cause to come from two persons? Is this not a commingling of the hypostases? This is the dogma of Sabellios. 73 Saint Mark understood what the basis for the Filioque was and according to him it taught a confusion of the hypostatic modes of existence. in continuation he stated:

if then, the unique source of the super-essential Godhead is the Father, and in this He is distinguished from the Son and the Spirit, what was the objective of this radical distinction? The Son cannot partake of the source of the Father, nor can the Holy Spirit do so, for thus, there is a confusion concerning the divine persons, and the distinctions are abolished. For as he says, neither is it lawful that those things which are united be abolished, nor can those things which are distinguished (from one another) be confused. And for this reason, (the matter) of the source of the Godhead can in no way be attributed to the Son. 74
 
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I’m not finding anything specific
There are so many specific things given on the web page cited. Did you read each one of the 20 or so articles and read each one of the 9 or so books? They all point to the answer to your question. A serious person who wants a serious answer to your question would read the documents cited on the page and then decide for herself if these documents add up to a substantial argument.
 
The Filioque, as it’s basis, teaches that the Holy Spirit has two causes and the typical Roman Catholic defense against this implies semi-Modalism. It is full of heresies and inconsistencies which does not align with the Orthodox conception of God.

Ultimately the Filioque is based off of Latin Aristotlean categorical thinking.
 
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