C
ChrisWRIT
Guest
The OP asked 2 questions:
In any case, since this is a Catholic forum, & I’m Catholic, I’ll give a Catholic answer.
Both questions hinge on the fact that Jesus is fully God and fully Man.
To fulfill the scriptures, Jesus had to be born, in the flesh, of a virgin of the line of David. Mary carried God in the flesh, just as the Ark of the (Old Covenant) carried God. The Ark of the Old Covenant needed to be perfect and holy, and so did Mary, which means she had to be without the stain of sin. How could that be possible, since we are all at least born with the stain or original sin?
Based on Scripture, the Church has infallibly taught that Mary was conceived immaculately, without the stain of original sin, and that she was perfectly obedient, finally resulting in her bodily assumption into heaven by God after her physical death.
Both are referred to implicitly in Scripture, and while one can claim that the Church’s teaching is only speculative - that Jesus preemptively saved his mother from the stain of original sin, and that Mary’s Assumption isn’t directly discussed in the Bible, it is a rejection of Church authority and papal infallibility, which really is the central issue with pretty much every Protestant objection to Catholic teachings they disagree with.
The assumption behind rejecting the authority of the Church, and papal infallibility, is “Sola Scriptura” or its close (and recently discovered) cousin, “Prima Scriptura.”
Both traditions (man-made, by the way) come down to a rejection of Church authority, & claim that "everything it says has to be explicitly in the Bible or it’s wrong.”
(I say “claim” because there are conflicting opinions on what has to be in the Bible or not. Babies are not baptized explicitly in scripture, so infant baptism is forbidden. But then, the Pill isn’t explicitly mentioned in the Bible, so that must be OK.)
Justasking’s attempt at discrediting infallibility confuses infallibility with impeccability - a common confusion even among Catholics.
However, Honarius I didn’t authoritatively declare the faith of the Roman Church, & didn’t claim to speak with the voice of Peter. So while he did teach error, & was later excommunicated for it, he did not teach authoritatively with the voice of Peter, so the gift of papal infallibility cannot be condemned by his example.
Respectfully,
Chris
- What do these two doctrines have to do with being a Christian?
- What do either of these doctrines have to do with the centrality of Jesus as the Savior?
In any case, since this is a Catholic forum, & I’m Catholic, I’ll give a Catholic answer.
Both questions hinge on the fact that Jesus is fully God and fully Man.
To fulfill the scriptures, Jesus had to be born, in the flesh, of a virgin of the line of David. Mary carried God in the flesh, just as the Ark of the (Old Covenant) carried God. The Ark of the Old Covenant needed to be perfect and holy, and so did Mary, which means she had to be without the stain of sin. How could that be possible, since we are all at least born with the stain or original sin?
Based on Scripture, the Church has infallibly taught that Mary was conceived immaculately, without the stain of original sin, and that she was perfectly obedient, finally resulting in her bodily assumption into heaven by God after her physical death.
Both are referred to implicitly in Scripture, and while one can claim that the Church’s teaching is only speculative - that Jesus preemptively saved his mother from the stain of original sin, and that Mary’s Assumption isn’t directly discussed in the Bible, it is a rejection of Church authority and papal infallibility, which really is the central issue with pretty much every Protestant objection to Catholic teachings they disagree with.
The assumption behind rejecting the authority of the Church, and papal infallibility, is “Sola Scriptura” or its close (and recently discovered) cousin, “Prima Scriptura.”
Both traditions (man-made, by the way) come down to a rejection of Church authority, & claim that "everything it says has to be explicitly in the Bible or it’s wrong.”
(I say “claim” because there are conflicting opinions on what has to be in the Bible or not. Babies are not baptized explicitly in scripture, so infant baptism is forbidden. But then, the Pill isn’t explicitly mentioned in the Bible, so that must be OK.)
Justasking’s attempt at discrediting infallibility confuses infallibility with impeccability - a common confusion even among Catholics.
However, Honarius I didn’t authoritatively declare the faith of the Roman Church, & didn’t claim to speak with the voice of Peter. So while he did teach error, & was later excommunicated for it, he did not teach authoritatively with the voice of Peter, so the gift of papal infallibility cannot be condemned by his example.
Given that the “documentation” you always ask for be Biblical, plenty.What does sola scriptura have to do with asking for documentation?
Agreed. Sadly, this is typically the case, which is why I believe that most of the protestants who post here are really looking for answers.You know, it occurs to me that this request for documentation is spurious. We can document many other Catholic “distinctives” much earlier in Church history, but Protestants reject those anyway. it’s not like they’ll accept any Catholic teaching which can be “documented” before year X. No documentation is going to convince them. Heck, even having it clearly stated in the bible is not going to convince them! (Baptism and the Eucharist, anybody?)
Respectfully,
Chris
:harp: :heaven: 