Inclusive language

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I am all for inclusive language having been in a number of situations in my younger days, after people had patiently explained to me that “man” or “mankind” included women (and girls to find that this was not always true.

Also non-inclusive language makes half of humanity invisible and any group who is invisible can so easily be ignored or regarded as inferior.
Salonika, yours is one of the few intelligent responses in this thread.

The OP specifically stated that she was not referring to inclusive language when speaking about God, and everyone rushes to castigate her for (a) inclusive language when referring to God :confused: ; and (b) feminism.

A) IMHO, just because some women don’t mind being referred to by masculine words, don’t you think it’s a little bit prideful to feel that everyone should feel the same way? Maybe you (generic “you”) don’t mind it, but I do - and I am certainly extraordinarily far from being the only one.

B) Furthermore, this is for all rabid anti-feminists:

Throughout history, in nearly every civilization, women have been considered inferior to men. Now, while I admit that some radical ends of feminism has bred terrible things such as abortion, let me list a few good things that feminism has accomplished:
  • a woman’s right to vote (in the U.S., not until 1920, and it took a Constitutional amendment.)
  • a woman’s right to attend the college of her choice (In 1879, the “Harvard Annex” for women’s instruction by Harvard faculty began operations. This was 243 after Harvard’s founding.)
  • a woman’s right to attend any college (In the U.S. at the beginning of the 20th century less than 20% of all college degrees were earned by women.)
  • a woman’s right to any education (In the 18th Century, it was often assumed by both educational philosophers and conduct book writers, who wrote what one might think of as early self-help books, that women were incapable of rational or abstract thought; too susceptible to sensibility and too fragile to be able to think clearly. Female reformers of the time, such as Catharine Macaulay, maintained that women were indeed capable of rational thought and deserved to be educated.)
  • a woman’s right to be employed in certain fields (At the beginning of the 20th Century about 5% of the doctors in the U.S. were women. As of 1998, 23% of all doctors were women, and today, women make up more than 50% of the medical student population.)
  • a woman’s right to work at all (During WWII - 1941-1945, women worked because all the men were at war. Afterwards, however, the hard work, loyalty and patriotism of these women were repaid by no guarantee of employment status as much of the industrial economy rushed to rehire men.)
  • a woman’s right to be paid the same salary as a man for the same work done (Both during and after WWII, women rarely earned as much in the occupations that became female-dominated - such as cashiers, tellers, and low-level loan officers - as their male colleagues had before.)
  • a woman’s right to hold public office (No more than 2 women served in the Senate at any time until 1994, and fewer than a dozen were Congressional Representatives until 1955.)
  • a woman’s right to own property (Old English Common Law transferred property held by a wife at the time of a marriage to her husband. French married women suffered from restrictions on their legal capacity which were removed only in 1965.)
  • a woman’s right to serve in the military (In the U.S., not until 1948.)
  • a woman’s right to enter into legal contracts
  • a woman’s right to have marital rights
  • a woman’s right to have parental rights
Need I go on?

How about a little history?
  • In the Mosaic law, women’s rights were minimized in favor of male authority. Divorce was a privilege of the husband only, except for extreme cases; the vow of a woman might be disallowed by her father or husband. Daughters could inherit only in the absence of sons, and then they must marry in their tribe (endogamy).
  • Women had it worse in ancient Rome where, by law, she was completely dependent on her male relatives. If married, she and her property passed into the power of her husband; if unmarried, she was under the perpetual tutelage of her father during his life, and after his death, control passed to her nearest blood relations. If there were no close blood relations, the extended family would be responsible for her upkeep.
The wife was the purchased property of her husband, and was, like a slave, acquired only for his benefit. A woman could not exercise any civil or public office. She could not be a witness, surety, tutor, or curator; she could not adopt or be adopted, or make a will or contract. A daughter might be disinherited by a general clause; a son had to be disinheirted by name. Furthermore, women could not obtain Roman citizenship, which provided exemption from scourging and crucifixion, gave the right to appeal before Caesar, and provided legal immunity from jurisdictions outside Rome.
  • In the East, up until 1500s, women were generally treated almost as untouchable and had very few rights. They were subjected to highly degrading practises like purdah (living separately from men or in seclusion); sati, the killing of the wife on the dead husband’s funeral pyre; and child marriage*, when girls of between 5 and 10 years old were married off, without their consent or knowledge.
  • I believe it’s common knowledge that child marriages still occur today worldwide.
  • In the British Isles, women’s rights varied by location and time period. However, as late as 1910, female heirs were still excluded from succession to real estate, except in the absence of a male heir. Also, a husband could obtain a divorce for the adultery of his wife, while a wife could obtain it only for her husband’s adultery if coupled with some other cause, such as cruelty or desertion.
Need I remind anyone that there are countries in the world today where women still have fewer rights than a man?

So much for feminism being so terrible…

Women - do you really want to go back to being the property of your husband?

Men - try suggesting this to your wives tonight, then PM me in the morning to let me know upon whose couch you slept.
 
Inclusive language that refers to God as a female --I definitely object to. The Vatican has come down against this trend. There were some priests who were baptizing in the name of the Creator, Redeemer, and Sanctifier (instead of the “chauvinistic” Father, Son, and Holy Spirit). The Vatican declared baptisms done in this manner were not valid. You can read about it here:
americanpapist.com/2008/02/cdf-officially-ends-dispute-on-baptisms.html

The rest of it (referring to “brothers and sisters” instead of just “brothers”) doesn’t bother me so much except for the fact that I know what’s behind it–the feminist movement–which I object to. The feminist movement is very anti-Christian and has done a lot of damage to the family and society. Still there are a lot of people within the Church who are heavily influenced by the feminist movement, and they are the ones pushing for the inclusive language.

The original hebrew texts (which Jesus himself would have studied by has words referencing God in the feminine according to a rabbi I briefly studied under. But then, maybe he just made that up.
Seriously, the Jewish concept of God is neither male nor female. The word is chosen based on the action that God is taking in the text. i.e if nurturing, it will be a feminine reference, if protecting a masculine one, etc. I seriously do not see how God (who gave the Jewish people their concept of Him) would have a problem with inclusive language and if He doesn’t, why should we?

As to the referenced baptisms…I think the Vatican was dead on to say they were invalid. THAT is going a bit far. I’m a traditionalist and I understand that keeping the words of ‘patriarchy’ does not invalidate me as a woman.
 
GemmaRose

Thank you for your powerful post.

The Roman Empire of the first cenury of this era was a patriarchal society, as you have clearly shown. Changing our translations to hide this fact is dishonest.

We should seek translations that are honest and reflect the thinking of the original texts.
 
I’ve never heard of this psalm being a Messianic prophecy. Where did you get that information?

I think it’s pretty obvious that “mankind” refers to all of humanity. I also don’t remember any incidence of Jesus being referred to as the “Son of Mankind.”

Just to reiterate - by inclusive language I DO NOT mean God being referred to as some kind of gender-neutral or male-female being; I mean something like the general addresses at the beginning of epistles being changed to say “brothers and sisters” instead of “brothers” or something like that.
Several Scripture studies Ive been in. You can , of course, interpert it differently BUT when the Scripture is changed for no other reason than to be “inclusive” it makes it difficult if not impossible to understand what the author meant.

When the author wrote the letter he started with “Brothers” nor Brothers and sisters" . Why should we change Scripture to accomodate the mores of a specific culture at a specific point in time?
 
The original hebrew texts (which Jesus himself would have studied by has words referencing God in the feminine according to a rabbi I briefly studied under. But then, maybe he just made that up.
Seriously, the Jewish concept of God is neither male nor female. The word is chosen based on the action that God is taking in the text. i.e if nurturing, it will be a feminine reference, if protecting a masculine one, etc. I seriously do not see how God (who gave the Jewish people their concept of Him) would have a problem with inclusive language and if He doesn’t, why should we?
Do you have any references on this, other than the rabbi who told you? Because it is my understanding that Jews did refer to God as masculine. We know Jesus did, so that tells us something. Not that God **is **a male but that he is like a father; thus we can understand something of God’s nature from what we know of the human role of father.

Also, the Jews had an all-male priesthood. And this was a time when many pagan religions had women priestesses, so it’s really not a matter of conforming to the conventions of the time.

And to Gemma, about feminism–sorry, the ends don’t justify the means. Life was tough for women in the past; it was tough for men too. In many ways we’re spoiled now. Still, the ideology behind the modern feminist movement is anti-Christian, toxic, and damaging to women, children, and society in general–there’s no other way to put it. I’m sure you can find some wonderful consequences from fascist and communist regimes, but they were rotten to the core. I think it’s possible to advance the cause for women by following Christian principles. The early Christians stood heads above Roman pagans when it came to the treatment of women.
 
Several Scripture studies Ive been in. You can , of course, interrrpert it differently BUT when the Scripture is changed for no other reason than to be “inclusive” it makes it difficualt if not impossble to understand what the author meant.

When wrote the letter he started with “Brothers” nor Brothers and sisters" . Why should we change Scripture to accomodate the mores of a specific culture at a specific point in time?
No, he didn’t - he used a gender-neutral term that included both males and females. When you read the originals, it’s clear that he’s speaking to both men and women - the entire congregation.

As for feminism, St. Paul was actually one of the world’s first feminists. He recognized and honoured the contributions of the women in his congregations, often, by name - a feminist action if ever there was one.

Also, many of the early women martyrs were virgins, because they elected not to marry, in order to retain title to their own property. They were able to do this as Christians. St. Barbara springs to mind, here. The early Catholic Church was the first to recognize the intrinsic spiritual worth of women, and to permit women to own their own property.

Feminism itself is actually very Christian - it’s the attitude of recognizing the intrinsic worth and dignity of a human being. It recognizes that women are created in the image and likeness of God, just as we read in Genesis 1:27.

Those who use feminism to promote abortion and anti-family attitudes are actually distorting the principles of feminism - they have lost sight of the original goal.
 
The bible has stood against the changes of the world. It’s only fairly recent (as far as the time the bible has been with us) that it’s been challenged. And no, I don’t believe that the bible is the cause behind how women have been treated for so long.

It is indeed on the agenda of the feminist type person. Those who think they know better than those of earlier centuries. There are some references to women in the bible, and they aren’t looked down on, nor are they treated as anything less than a man.

In fact, there are scriptures expaining how women are to be treated by their husbands. And that isn’t as second class citizens. One good reference is Proverbs 31:10-31.
 
As Alice Von Hildebrandt said, there was a time, before feminism, when women could understand that “men” meant mankind.

:blessyou:
Amen! It is a pity that women have become so . . . well, stupid, is the word that comes to mind. The rule in English has always been that if no gender is specified in the singular he/him is to be used. To use “they” in a singular situation is an offense against grammar.

As a liberated woman, I find it condescending to be treated like a child whose feelings might be hurt if male pronouns are used in my presence.
 
That is not correct. “Mankind” refers to everyone. Everyone knows that.
Are you suggesting we should now say “mankind and womankind”?
Do you want the Bible to say God the Father/Mother, Son and Holy Spirit?
The Bible should not be changed to use inclusive language. Its ridiculous.
Absolutely correct! Nobody feels a need to rewrite Shakespear in inclusive language, as though a man’s writing is more sacred than God’s.
 
Inclusive language destroys the historicity of a text.

Imagine if the Declaration of Independence was subjected to inclusive language. They’d have to change “Governments are instituted among Men” and “a decent respect to the opinions of mankind” into less feminine-prejudiced language. I can predict the howls of indignation Americans would throw up at such a proposal. They’d be tinkering with history, rewriting what happened.

If we’re to change one set of historical documents to appease modernist-feminist thinking, why not change them all? Why change Jewish historical documents and keep American historical documents intact? Those other documents might offend the feminists too you know.
 
No, he didn’t - he used a gender-neutral term that included both males and females.
There is not such construct in Greek. Neutral terms are only used for things, much like “it” in English. When referring to people of both genders, the masculine form is used. This grammatical rule can also be found in many modern languages that retained gender in adjectives, pronouns, etc, such as the Romance and Germanic languages.

Inclusive language is a temptation in English because America is the cradle of political correctness and its language is of barbaric origin is primitive at best, falling short of conveying the nuanced ideas. Which probably explains the deficit in English-speaking philosophers throughout history.

:blessyou:
 
Inclusive language destroys the historicity of a text.

Imagine if the Declaration of Independence was subjected to inclusive language. They’d have to change “Governments are instituted among Men” and “a decent respect to the opinions of mankind” into less feminine-prejudiced language. I can predict the howls of indignation Americans would throw up at such a proposal. They’d be tinkering with history, rewriting what happened.

If we’re to change one set of historical documents to appease modernist-feminist thinking, why not change them all? Why change Jewish historical documents and keep American historical documents intact? Those other documents might offend the feminists too you know.
 
The Roman Empire of the first cenury of this era was a patriarchal society, as you have clearly shown. Changing our translations to hide this fact is dishonest.

We should seek translations that are honest and reflect the thinking of the original texts.
The original text are the words of Jesus through His followers inspired by the Holy Spirit. Are you pretending to know better than the Apostles?

:blessyou:
 
B) Furthermore, this is for all rabid anti-feminists:

Throughout history, in nearly every civilization, women have been considered inferior to men. Now, while I admit that some radical ends of feminism has bred terrible things such as abortion, let me list a few good things that feminism has accomplished:
  • a woman’s right to vote (in the U.S., not until 1920, and it took a Constitutional amendment.)
Considering how close Hilary came to being the Democratic nominee thanks for the most part to women’s votes, should we rethink this one? 😉
 
Augustine,

thank you for your reply to me.

Congratulations on your excellent home page.
The original text are the words of Jesus through His followers inspired by the Holy Spirit. Are you pretending to know better than the Apostles?

:blessyou:
The original texts we have are not the words of Jesus, except possibly when Jesus spoke Greek. The NT is in Greek and Jesus spoke Aramaic.

We believe that the Bible is the inspired word of God. The interpretation of what this means may be a problem for us.
 
Inclusive language destroys the historicity of a text.

Imagine if the Declaration of Independence was subjected to inclusive language. They’d have to change “Governments are instituted among Men” and “a decent respect to the opinions of mankind” into less feminine-prejudiced language. I can predict the howls of indignation Americans would throw up at such a proposal. They’d be tinkering with history, rewriting what happened.
The Founding Fathers did not consider women to be human beings, though - the Apostles did. That’s the difference.
 
The Founding Fathers did not consider women to be human beings, though - the Apostles did. That’s the difference.
Nonsense. The idea that because women couldnt vote , etc in no way indicates that they were considered less than human beings. Its this type of over the top, hysterical pronouncements that always creeps into these threads and makes further rational discussion impossible.
 
We believe that the Bible is the inspired word of God. The interpretation of what this means may be a problem for us.
Let me rephrase my question: do you pretend to know better than the Holy Scriptures authors who were inspired by the Holy Spirit?

We have the Holy Mother Church to give us how to interpret the Word of God, and she, who is guided by the same Holy Spirit as Jesus promised to make no doctrinal error, has spoken against gender-inclusive language.

I’m sorry, but insistence on this ridiculous maneuver to distort the Scriptures is heterodoxy plain and simple. We don’t need the heresy of Marcionionism yet again.

:blessyou:

PS: thanks for your kind comments about to my blog.
 
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