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Jimmy Akin (of Catholic Answers fame) blog on the question:
jimmyakin.com/2004/11/contraception_i.html
Jimmy Akin (of Catholic Answers fame) blog on the question:
jimmyakin.com/2004/11/contraception_i.html
This loyal submission of the will and intellect must be given, in a special way, to the authentic authority of the Roman pontiff, even when he does not speak ex cathedra, in such wise, indeed, that his supreme teaching authority be acknowledged with respect and sincere assent be given to decisions made by him. (Lumen Gentium 25)
The ordinary and universal Magisterium has proclaimed “ex cathedra” and this is present in *Casti Connubii *and Humanae Vitae.Bookcat #21
Concerning the infallibility question, the pope doesn’t need to proclaim ex cathedra the teaching that artificial means of birth control is wrong; it’s already an infallible teaching of the Church by virtue of the ordinary and universal magisterium.
See *Ad Tuendam Fidem *(ATF), Bl JPII , 1998 at:This loyal submission of the will and intellect must be given, in a special way, to the authentic authority of the Roman pontiff, even when he does not speak ex cathedra, in such wise, indeed, that his supreme teaching authority be acknowledged with respect and sincere assent be given to decisions made by him. (Lumen Gentium 25)
(My mis-speak…apologies)The 1983 revision of Canon Law replaced in Canon 749:3 “dogmatically (‘dogmatice’) declared or defined” with “infallibly defined”. This removes any occasion for equating “infallible” with “dogmatic”, an equation which unduly limits papal infallibility. Such a limitation is clearly not contained in the Vatican I dogma on papal infallibility.
Yes a very good comparison. *Thus *Humanae Vitae *(Encyclical) against contraception, and *Ordinatio Sacerdotalis *(Apostolic Epistle) on male-only priests, contain infallible doctrinal definitions, to remove all doubt.
"The Church has always taught the intrinsic evil of
contraception, that is, of every marital act intentionally
rendered unfruitful. *This teaching is to be held as *definitive
and irreformable**. Contraception is gravely opposed to marital
chastity, it is contrary to the good of the transmission of life
(the procreative aspect of matrimony), and to the reciprocal
self-giving of the spouses (the unitive aspect of matrimony); it
harms true love and denies the sovereign role of God in the
transmission of human life [Vademecum for Confessors 2:4, emphasis added]."
You have received some good answers.Just looking for the official reference where contraception was declared a sin in an infalliable way. Anyone have a reference or, even better, a link?
first, we must point out the tendency to measure everything on the basis of the distinction between the “infallible Magisterium” and the “fallible Magisterium”.
In this way infallibility becomes the criterion for all authority problems, to the point of actually replacing the concept of authority with that of infallibility. Furthermore, the question of the infallibility of the Magisterium is often confused with the question of the truth of a doctrine, by assuming that infallibility is the pre-qualification for the truth and irreformability of the doctrine, and by making the truth and definitive nature of the doctrine depend on whether or not it has been infallibly defined by the Magisterium. In fact, the truth and irreformability of a doctrine depends on the ), transmitted by Scripture and Tradition, while infallibility refers only to the degree of certitude of an act of magisterial teaching. In the various critical stances towards the recent documents of the Magisterium it is often forgotten that the infallible character of a teaching and the definitive and irrevocable character of the assent owed it is not a prerogative belonging solely to what has been solemnly “defined” by the Roman Pontiff or an Ecumenical Council. Whenever the Bishops dispersed in their individual Dioceses in communion with the Successor of Peter teach a truth to be held in a definitive way (cf. , n. 25, 2), they enjoy the same infallibility as the Pope’s Magisterium or that of a Council.
the ordinary papal Magisterium can teach a doctrine as because it has been constantly maintained and held by Tradition and transmitted by the ordinary, universal Magisterium. This latter exercise of the charism of infallibility does not take the form of a papal act of definition, but pertains to the ordinary, universal Magisterium which the Pope again sets forth with his formal pronouncement of and (generally in an Encyclical or Apostolic Letter). If we were to hold that the Pope must necessarily make an definition whenever he intends to declare a doctrine as definitive because it belongs to the deposit of faith, it would imply an underestimation of the ordinary, universal Magisterium, and infallibility would be limited to the solemn definitions of the Pope or a Council, in a way that differs from the teaching of Vatican I and Vatican II, which attribute an infallible character to the teachings of the ordinary, universal Magisterium.
The Shakers live like Catholic religious, and to use them to make a point about contraception is completely inappropriate.Contraception is the same way. It isn’t anything new, you realize. Ancient Romans had potions to bring about temporary sterility and even used crude IUDs. Christianity universally and consistently denounced this for 1,930 years before a rebellious faction successfully advanced the notion that what had always been known to be bad was actually good. The secular status quo today has been around barely more than 70 years. It is a philosophy almost as inherently self destructive as that of the Shakers and will end the same way: extinction for those who fall for it.
I’m intrigued! Please expand upon.The Shakers live like Catholic religious, and to use them to make a point about contraception is completely inappropriate.
Thus *Humanae Vitae *(Encyclical) against contraception, and *Ordinatio Sacerdotalis *(Apostolic Epistle) on male-only priests, contain infallible doctrinal definitions, to remove all doubt.
Yes a very good comparison. *
In Ordinatio Sacerdotalis Bl. Pope John Paul II did NOT issue an “infallible doctrinal definition”. It contains no “infallible doctrinal definitions”. He rather is noting a doctrine that is infallible* already* (via the Ordinary and Universal Magisterium). He was drawing attention to this fact without himself further exercising his office via an “ex cathedra” definition.
In Ordinatio Sacerdotalis Pope John Paul II was exercising his office of “confirming the brethren” (cf. Lk 22:32).
His “formal declaration” was not a defining of the doctrine ex cathedra but a handing on what was infallibly taught by the Ordinary and Universal Magisterium.
A Pope can make formal declarations or proclamations without it being a “infallible doctrinal definition” on his part. He is confirming his brothers in the reality that the matter is already infallibly proposed for belief by the ordinary and universal Magisterium.
Right – they are speaking of what I was noting above.Extracts:
“According to Ford and Grisez “Contraception and the Infallibility of the Ordinary Magisterium,” Theological Studies, Vol. 39, No. 2, June 1978, pp. 258-312], the Church’s teaching against contraception is a classic example of this third mode of infallibility transmitting the doctrine of Christ. That is, while they do not claim that *Humanae Vitae *is in itself an ex cathedra, infallible definition, Ford and Grisez maintain that the teaching which it contains is infallible and irreformable, by virtue of having been taught constantly and definitively, over a period of many centuries, by a consensus of Popes and Bishops around the world - a consensus which was virtually unanimous until the early 1960s.
Keeping it brief, Shakers confessed their sins, gave up their worldly possessions, and remained celibate (i.e., no marriage). They were also self sufficient. The did not “contracept” but remained celibate because the believed it was holy. They even raised children through adoption, conversion, etc. There is absolutely nothing sinful or wrong in not marrying/having sex if one feels that is their calling, Catholic or otherwise.I’m intrigued! Please expand upon.
What happens to infallibility if the consensus is not there through the history?…
“According to Ford and Grisez “Contraception and the Infallibility of the Ordinary Magisterium,” Theological Studies, Vol. 39, No. 2, June 1978, pp. 258-312], the Church’s teaching against contraception is a classic example of this third mode of infallibility transmitting the doctrine of Christ. That is, while they do not claim that *Humanae Vitae *is in itself an ex cathedra, infallible definition, Ford and Grisez maintain that the teaching which it contains is infallible and irreformable, by virtue of having been taught constantly and definitively, over a period of many centuries, by a consensus of Popes and Bishops around the world - a consensus which was virtually unanimous until the early 1960s.
…
It’s not just “consensus,” but consensus under very strict circumstances. A very simple example is Canon Law. That is most certainly “consensus,” but there is a great deal in Canon Law that is not infallible.What happens to infallibility if the consensus is not there through the history?
No, it can’t. Catholic religious do not see human sexuality as something improper or unholy. They see it as something holy and sacred that they have chosen to sacrifice for the sake of a specific calling given to them by God.Making some comparison between them [Shakers] and contraception is strange, because the exact same analogies can be made for Catholic religious.