D
DM_P
Guest
What is the best argument for this? This guy im discussing with is a little persistent and would like to ask for good arguments against his claim. Here are his arguments:
You told me that because of the church we have the Scriptures… and I told you the canon became canon once God spoke… NOT when His people recognized them as Scripture. So prior to collection of the canon you said the Scriptures did not function as such until the church said it was so… how then do you say that the pope can function infallibly prior to 1870 if they had yet recognized it was so? You would have to take one of two positions:
only Scripture is referred to as θεόπνευστος…
Regarding John 16:13.
I didn’t say the apostles were infallible I said the Holy Spirit is.
In fact, that was my point. I wasn’t denying special authority by the apostles… but even they answered back to Scripture on all their teachings… (today’s OT).
That’s my whole problem with the RCC. They place themselves above the Lord.
2 Peter 1:17-21 (I did not include the verse)
It is very clear that only God’s words hold the weight to command authority for life. You say Sola Scriptura is not taught? I would contest that it is more than clear that we are to hold to Scripture as the only such thing as infallible.
Even Peter, who saw Christ transfigured, regarded Scripture as much better than and “more sure” than such experiences.
And I feel compelled to remind you that Sola Scriptura does not mean Scripture isolated… it means: “Scripture alone as the sole infallible rule of faith for the church”.
Due to character limit in the post, I’ll post the continuation in the replies. (oh please bear with me) thank you
You told me that because of the church we have the Scriptures… and I told you the canon became canon once God spoke… NOT when His people recognized them as Scripture. So prior to collection of the canon you said the Scriptures did not function as such until the church said it was so… how then do you say that the pope can function infallibly prior to 1870 if they had yet recognized it was so? You would have to take one of two positions:
- That the church is above Scripture since you’re not applying the same standard of measure of determining authenticity.
- Scripture DID function as Scripture prior to it being defined as such by any formal council.
If you take the second route, you have to admit Sola Scriptura because ultimately it would be Scriptural authority that takes precedence.
Btw, i did not told him scriptures does not function as such until the church said it so. I did not know where he got it. So to continue with his arguments here it is:only Scripture is referred to as θεόπνευστος…
Regarding John 16:13.
I didn’t say the apostles were infallible I said the Holy Spirit is.
In fact, that was my point. I wasn’t denying special authority by the apostles… but even they answered back to Scripture on all their teachings… (today’s OT).
That’s my whole problem with the RCC. They place themselves above the Lord.
2 Peter 1:17-21 (I did not include the verse)
It is very clear that only God’s words hold the weight to command authority for life. You say Sola Scriptura is not taught? I would contest that it is more than clear that we are to hold to Scripture as the only such thing as infallible.
Even Peter, who saw Christ transfigured, regarded Scripture as much better than and “more sure” than such experiences.
And I feel compelled to remind you that Sola Scriptura does not mean Scripture isolated… it means: “Scripture alone as the sole infallible rule of faith for the church”.
Due to character limit in the post, I’ll post the continuation in the replies. (oh please bear with me) thank you