Intercommunion

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Thankyou very much for the time and effort you have put in for the previous response.
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mardukm:
If a teaching is infallible, it does not require the examination of a synod to BE infallible. It was ALREADY infallible BEFORE it even came to the table to be discussed. In fact, it was infallible even BEFORE the Pope gave expression to it.
Does this quote verify that in fact Thomas Aquinas is a heretic by Catholic standards for rejecting the Immaculate Conception? Or how about John Chrysostom, he must also be a heretic too?

When you place a dichotemy between what Valentine is saying in some areas with what you are saying, it seems to me that you are saying the same thing in different words and then labelling Valentine as ignorant of Catholic teaching.
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mardukm:
Truly, this man has no conception that infallibility is first and foremost the infallibility of God.
Mardukm, you criticise Valentine’s “evil” agenda to misrepresent the Catholic faith, and yet you misrepresent his faith. He clearly said “Christ is the only infallible head”. It is clear he is attributing this infallibility to Christ - which IS God.
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mardukm:
It is well and good that later generations rejected these earlier sessions of Constance and Basel because these earlier sessions actually violated the prescriptions of Apostolic Canon 34 – they were held without the approval of the head bishop, the Pope.
Then what are the limits of the Pope? He may define a doctrine on his own without the Church, and if the Church defines anything, it needs his approval?

What of Robert Ballermine?

“The manifestly heretical pope ceases per se to be pope and head as he ceases per se to be a Christian and member of the Church, and therefore he can be judged and punished by the Church. This is the teaching of all the early Fathers.” (Saint Robert Bellarmine, De Romano Pontifice (Milan, 1857), vol. II, chap. 30, p. 420.)

Again the Catholic encyclopedia of 1913 says:

“The Pope himself, if notoriously guilty of heresy, would cease to be pope because he would cease to be a member of the Church.” (Catholic Encyclopedia (New York, 1917), vol. VII, p. 261)

What can be done if the Pope ceases to be the pope due to heresy, and how does the church judge him without the head (the pope)?

Thankyou very much. Papal Infallibility still makes little to no sense to me.

God bless.
 
When you place a dichotemy between what Valentine is saying in some areas with what you are saying, it seems to me that you are saying the same thing in different words and then labelling Valentine as ignorant of Catholic teaching.
Valentine is ignorant even of Orthodox teaching. When this used to be the Eastern Christianity forum, the ROC and ROCOR here consistently rejected his views on various EO issues. Particularly his insistence that there are nine ecumenical councils as opposed to seven. geocities.com/trvalentine/orthodox/8-9synods.html

You’ve hitched your wagon to the wrong apologist.
What of Robert Ballermine?
“The manifestly heretical pope ceases per se to be pope and head as he ceases per se to be a Christian and member of the Church, and therefore he can be judged and punished by the Church. This is the teaching of all the early Fathers.” (Saint Robert Bellarmine, De Romano Pontifice (Milan, 1857), vol. II, chap. 30, p. 420.)
Again the Catholic encyclopedia of 1913 says:
“The Pope himself, if notoriously guilty of heresy, would cease to be pope because he would cease to be a member of the Church.” (Catholic Encyclopedia (New York, 1917), vol. VII, p. 261)
Hmmm… Did you really take these from the works of Ballermine and the Catholic Encyclopedia? Or did you get them from here?:

geocities.com/athens/oracle/9463/pope.html

Be honest. Please don’t cite your sources as original when you took them from an apologetics article.

As for the Catholic Encyclopedia, here is the original reference:

newadvent.org/cathen/07256b.htm#REF_VIII

The statement is made in isolation and with no analysis. The author is in error if what he means is that a heretical pope may no longer validly exercise his office. A Pope who was in heresy would exercise his office validly, but illicitly. This is basic Augustinian teaching in the Church. It is also why even schismatic and heretical bishops can confer holy orders.
What can be done if the Pope ceases to be the pope due to heresy, and how does the church judge him without the head (the pope)?
A Pope does not lose his charism and office even if he is a heretic. The best arguments (and they aren’t very good) come from the sedevacantists on this issue. If you really want to try to make a case for it, go visit one of their sites. You won’t get very far against the apologists here with it though. Just warning you in advance.
Thankyou very much. Papal Infallibility still makes little to no sense to me.
It doesn’t surprise me if you’ve been reading T.R. Valentine. Then again, after reading his works I didn’t think Orthodoxy made very much sense either.
 
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tdgesq:
Hmmm… Did you really take these from the works of Ballermine and the Catholic Encyclopedia? Or did you get them from here?:
I took them from an apologetics website that didnt look anything like that one, but I did get it from an apologetics website - yes. I have not read ballermine, but after reading the link you gave me from the Catholic Encyclopedia, I have read that.
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tdgesq:
The statement is made in isolation and with no analysis. The author is in error if what he means is that a heretical pope may no longer validly exercise his office. A Pope who was in heresy would exercise his office validly, but illicitly. This is basic Augustinian teaching in the Church. It is also why even schismatic and heretical bishops can confer holy orders.
Are you sure about that? The paragraph in full says:

“Additional penalties to be decreed by judicial sentences: Apostates and heretics are irregular, that is, debarred from receiving clerical orders or exercising lawfully the duties and rights annexed to them; they are infamous, that is, publicly noted as guilty and dishonoured. This note of infamy clings to the children and grandchildren of unrepented heretics. Heretical clerics and all who receive, defend, or favour them are ipso facto deprived of their benefices, offices, and ecclesiastical jurisdiction. The pope himself, if notoriously guilty of heresy, would cease to be pope because he would cease to be a member of the Church. Baptism received without necessity by an adult at the hands of a declared heretic renders the recipient irregular. Heresy constitutes an impedient impediment to marriage with a Catholic (mixta religio) from which the pope dispenses or gives the bishops power to dispense (see IMPEDIMENTS). Communicatio in sacris, i.e. active participation in non-Catholic religious functions, is on the whole unlawful, but it is not so intrinsically evil that, under given circumstances, it may not be excused. Thus friends and relatives may for good reasons accompany a funeral, be present at a marriage or a baptism, without causing scandal or lending support, to the non-Catholic rites, provided no active part be taken in them: their motive is friendship, or maybe courtesy, but it nowise implies approval of the rites. Non-Catholics are admitted to all Catholic services but not to the sacraments.” (New Advent Catholic Encyclopedia: Heresy)
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tdgesq:
A Pope does not lose his charism and office even if he is a heretic. The best arguments (and they aren’t very good) come from the sedevacantists on this issue.
The last time I recalled Sedevacantists do believe in papal infallibility, but merely believe Pope Benedict XVI is not the valid pope (the seat is vacant since he accepted a heresy before being ordained - thus not a valid ordaination). It is the Old Catholics who do not believe in papal infallibility.

Papal Infallibility does not need to be disproven, for the same reason that the infallibility of the American president does not need to be disproven. It is not the teaching of the church.

Protestants have more patristic reference for Sola Scriptura and Sola Fide than Catholics have for papal infallibility. There is also very limited Roman Catholic defense articles in regards to papal infallibility - are there any good defense articles on this doctrine on the net? (that do not follow the line of reasoning - the church is infallible and the church infallibly declared the pope infallible, thus he is infallible)? Because it is because the Catholic Church declared the pope infallible, that I KNEW it was not the true church, but was somewhat deficient.

God bless.
 
The problem being New Advent uses the 1913 Enclclopedia.

The understanding of the Pope and his role has changed a LOT since that point.
 
The problem being New Advent uses the 1913 Enclclopedia.

The understanding of the Pope and his role has changed a LOT since that point.
I am not sure what is meant by this. How has the RCC changed its teaching on the Pope since 1917?
 
I am not sure what is meant by this. How has the RCC changed its teaching on the Pope since 1917?
Specifically? Vatican II clarified the role of Infalibility, specifically explicating the meaning of the Vatican I definition. It tempered the absolutism apparent in the V I dogma to being conditional.

The major debates in the 1920’s through 1950’s about the meaning of infalibility came to a head in the second vatican council.

Keep in mind also: Vatican I resulted in the Old Catholic schism.

(I say apparent, because the V II council did not reject V I as a false council, and thus could not reverse the prior council’s decrees… it could reinterpret it from how many had interpreted it… Further, Vatican II made no dogmatic definitions, only pastoral definitions, and interpretations.)

To overturn a council requires another, later, council to declare it void. It’s not happened often. (Twice, IIRC…)
 
Dear brother Aramis,
Specifically? Vatican II clarified the role of Infalibility, specifically explicating the meaning of the Vatican I definition. It tempered the absolutism apparent in the V I dogma to being conditional.

The major debates in the 1920’s through 1950’s about the meaning of infalibility came to a head in the second vatican council.

Keep in mind also: Vatican I resulted in the Old Catholic schism.

(I say apparent, because the V II council did not reject V I as a false council, and thus could not reverse the prior council’s decrees… it could reinterpret it from how many had interpreted it… Further, Vatican II made no dogmatic definitions, only pastoral definitions, and interpretations.)

To overturn a council requires another, later, council to declare it void. It’s not happened often. (Twice, IIRC…)
I concur with 90% of what you say. I would disagree only with your statement that V II REINTERPRETED V I. This seems to indicate that the intentions of the Fathers of V I were somehow contradicted the intentions of the Fathers of V II.

In truth, if one reads the interpretations of the Majority Fathers at V I, their understanding of papal prerogatives (in the non-absolutist sense) is exactly identical to the intentions of V II. I agree with you that V I, BECAUSE it was incomplete due to the inteference of impending war, was liable to be misinterpreted. And as you noted, debate still existed before V II on the nature of the papal prerogatives (i.e., infallibility, as well jurisdictions). But I believe this debate was NOT the result of a difference in the understanding of the papal prerogatives between the V I Fathers and the V II Fathers. Rather, it is merely by virtue of the fact that because of the interruption of V I, the fullness of the Faith regarding ecclesiology was not as yet expressed with full conciliar authority. Thus, arguments over the matter continued. Actually, arguments still continue, but it is not amongst orthodox Catholics. Rather, it is today between orthodox Catholics on the one hand, and liberal Catholics and other non-Catholics who misinterpret VI and V II, on the other.

I will start a thread next week, wherein I will provide the interpretations of the Majority Fathers at V I.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear brother ematouk,

I will respond to your posts this weekend (by Sunday).

Thank you for your patience.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
Dear brother Ematouk,

Thank you for your patience. I have actually been trying to go through my e-mails/ PM’s/ and posts and have been trying to keep up with responses on a chronological basis. But as you have personally bumped this for me….🙂
Does this quote verify that in fact Thomas Aquinas is a heretic by Catholic standards for rejecting the Immaculate Conception? Or how about John Chrysostom, he must also be a heretic too?
St. Thomas was not a heretic, for he believed exactly what the Church teaches regarding the dogma of the IC - namely, that the spiritual conception of Mary was Immaculate. Please read this explanation:
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=3941371&postcount=9

As far as St. Chrysostom is concerned, I am not sure what you are referring to.
When you place a dichotemy between what Valentine is saying in some areas with what you are saying, it seems to me that you are saying the same thing in different words and then labelling Valentine as ignorant of Catholic teaching.
Can you explain this a bit more? Are you accusing me of inconsistency (if you are, don’t worry, I’m not insulted)? If so, what inconsistency? And what would my proposed inconsistency have to do with the bare fact that Valentine misunderstands the Catholic teaching on papal infallibility? Whether I am inconsistent or not does not affect or mitigate the fact of Valentine’s ignorance of Catholic teaching.
Mardukm, you criticise Valentine’s “evil” agenda to misrepresent the Catholic faith, and yet you misrepresent his faith.
I don’t think I charged Valentine with having an “agenda,” much less call his supposed agenda “evil.” Can you please cite the section where I stated that?
He clearly said “Christ is the only infallible head”. It is clear he is attributing this infallibility to Christ - which IS God.
Let’s not confuse the issue. We’re talking about the head bishop, not the ultimate head of the Church, Who BOTH Catholics and Orthodox admit is Jesus Christ.

And let’s not avoid the context either. The quote from me that you are criticizing comes in the context of Valentine claiming that an infallible statement is infallible BECAUSE of synodal confirmation. So it has nothing to do with who is the “head” or the “head bishop.” Rather, the matter is about Valentine’s misconception of infallibility, as something conditioned on synodal approval. Truth does not depend on consensus. Wouldn’t you agree? Please just stop for a moment and think about it.
Then what are the limits of the Pope? He may define a doctrine on his own without the Church
The Pope has NEVER defined a single doctrine “without the Church?” I and others have covered this issue several times before. The more recent ones:
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=3823171&postcount=11
forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=3823229&postcount=12

Later on, you mentioned that it is difficult for you to imagine papal infallibility. This misconception that you hold is probably one of the main reasons for that.
and if the Church defines anything, it needs his approval?
That’s just basic ecclesiology 101 from Apostolic Canon 34. I don’t understand why that is so objectionable to the EO. I can understand if the Protestants object to it, but I don’t understand why the EO would object to the Apostolic Canon.

Please answer these questions:
  1. Is it so common for Eastern Orthodox to act without the consent of the head bishop?
  2. Do YOU believe in the authority of apostolic Canon 34?
  3. If so, why do you ask this question?
CONTINUED
 
CONTINUED
What of Robert Ballermine?

“The manifestly heretical pope ceases per se to be pope and head as he ceases per se to be a Christian and member of the Church, and therefore he can be judged and punished by the Church. This is the teaching of all the early Fathers.” (Saint Robert Bellarmine, De Romano Pontifice (Milan, 1857), vol. II, chap. 30, p. 420.)

Again the Catholic encyclopedia of 1913 says:

“The Pope himself, if notoriously guilty of heresy, would cease to be pope because he would cease to be a member of the Church.” (Catholic Encyclopedia (New York, 1917), vol. VII, p. 261)

What can be done if the Pope ceases to be the pope due to heresy, and how does the church judge him without the head (the pope)?
Brother tdgesq gave a response, but I don’t think his answer was sufficient. I believe brother tdgesq’s answer assumed the Pope was a private heretic, but that is not what we are talking about, nor is it what your quotes were addressing. Notice that your quotes assign some distinctive adjectives to a Pope who is heretic – namely, “manifestly,” and “notoriously guilty.” This indicates that the Pope must basically be announcing to the Church at large that he opposes the teachings of the Church. At that point, I do believe a Pope can be judged. As St. Bellarmine stated, this is “the teaching of all the early Fathers.”

As a matter of fact, THE SO-CALLED EIGHTH ECUMENICAL COUNCIL ASSERTED THAT A POPE CANNOT BE JUDGED UNJUSTLY OR HASTILY. It did not give any details on how such a process would take place, but it certainly assumed it could be done. There was one in this forum who has very recently asserted that Vatican I and Vatican II claimed that a Pope can never be judged, though when I asked him to provide documentation – well, let’s just say he looked rather foolish. As I suspected, his statements were merely based on extrapolations and exaggerations of what the Vatican Councils taught, for he did not provide one iota of DIRECT evidence for his claim.

As noted, there is no clear manner from history on how the matter is to be handled. There were one or two occasions during the Middle Ages when a notoriously immoral Pope was removed, but this was a unique time when the secular powers were involved in determining who held the Petrine office. Such a situation no longer exists and we cannot use such circumstances as a model for our ecclesiology.

I gave my opinion on the issue succinctly in the “Head Bishop” thread - forums.catholic-questions.org/showpost.php?p=3937132&postcount=28. To add a bit more to my thoughts already expressed on the matter, I sincerely believe that such an action as the trial of a Pope can only be handled in the setting of an Ecumenical Council. He cannot be judged by the normal means of ecclesiastical jurisprudence, which is an arm of the papal curia. In such an instance, he must still be considered the head, and treated with all due respect, until such time as it can be proven he is an actual heretic (for certainly, if the Pope is either proven not to be a heretic, or rejects his heresies, he remains Pope/head bishop).

If and when he is proven to be a heretic, the Catholic Church already has the means within its laws to enact the judgment. As noted, by virtue of the law itself, the Pope will cease to be a member of the Catholic Church. When there is no Pope, the interim is governed by the Cardinal Camerlengo who acts in the capacity of a purely administrative HEAD for the Church. As such, he can apply the existing laws of the Church on the person who is no longer Pope.

I hope that answers your questions. And I would welcome any comments and criticisms from my fellow Catholics.
Thankyou very much. Papal Infallibility still makes little to no sense to me.
And I thank you as well for giving me an opportunity to explain. If you will grant me your indulgence (no pun intended) a bit more, permit me to surmise why I believe it makes little or no sense to you (and I welcome your comments and/or criticisms):
  1. The main cause is that, judging from all the comments from the EO here, it is way too easy for EO to imagine that a head bishop is not necessary, or that the head bishop is to be regarded as separated from the body, or if part of the body, to regard the head bishop as having no special prerogatives whatsoever. For instance, EO always speak of “the Ecumenical Council AND the Pope” as if the Pope was not inherently and indispensably part of the body of bishops that form the Ecumenical Council – albeit its head bishop, but nevertheless a member of that body.
  2. The next reason for your difficulty is because, once again, judging from all the comments of the EO here, it seems EO cannot accept the mere and pure fact that the infallibility of the Pope is one and the same infallibility that the Church possesses. In other words, it is not separate from the infallibility of the Church. And the sad thing is, the Catholic Church actually TEACHES that the infallibility of the Pope is not separate from the infallibility of the Church, but EO for some strange reason still want to desperately hold on to their OWN MISconception on the matter. This seems to be intimately tied to #1 above. If the entire body of bishops is infallible, it should not be hard to imagine the infallibility of the head bishop, but since it is so easy for EO to imagine the body without the head and vice versa, then the false dichotomy inexorably ensues.
  3. The final reason, and forgive me if this sounds insulting, is that that the EO do not appreciate the model of governance established by God in Scripture. In Scripture, God so very often, if not always, speaks through the voice of one to establish his doctrines to his people, and also to govern his people. This is evident in both the Old and New Testaments. In the NT in particular, we have only two instances wherein doctrinal judgments are promulgated. First, note that even though all the Apostles had been given the charism of the Holy Spirit, it was nevertheless through the mouth of PETER that the doctrine of including the Gentiles into the Church was established. And (second) note also that during the local council of Jerusalem, it is the voice of one that makes the judgment (though indeed it is in the name of the entire Church that the decision is handed down). Both models exist in the Catholic Church, and the Catholic Church alone.
I hope that helps. As always, I welcome your comments and/or criticisms.

Blessings,
Marduk
 
The Pope has NEVER defined a single doctrine “without the Church?” I and others have covered this issue several times before.
Here are a few doctined defined without the approval of the Eastern Orthodox Church:
  1. papal infallibility
  2. Immaculate Conception
  3. The Assumption
 
Thankyou very much Marduk for such an excellent response.
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mardukm:
As far as St. Chrysostom is concerned, I am not sure what you are referring to.
St John Chrysostom Homily 44 on Matthew (quoted from newadvent.org/fathers/200144.htm ):

"And this is hence especially manifest. For while He yet talked to the people, it is said, one told Him, Your mother and Your brethren seek You. But He says, who is my mother, and who are my brethren?

And this He said, not as being ashamed of His mother, nor denying her that bare Him; for if He had been ashamed of her, He would not have passed through that womb; but as declaring that she has no advantage from this, unless she do all that is required to be done. For in fact that which she had essayed to do, was of superfluous vanity; in that she wanted to show the people that she has power and authority over her Son, imagining not as yet anything great concerning Him; whence also her unseasonable approach. See at all events both her self-confidence and theirs. Since when they ought to have gone in, and listened with the multitude; or if they were not so minded, to have waited for His bringing His discourse to an end, and then to have come near; they call Him out, and do this before all, evincing a superfluous vanity, and wishing to make it appear, that with much authority they enjoin Him. And this too the evangelist shows that he is blaming, for with this very allusion did he thus express himself, While He yet talked to the people; as if he should say, What? was there no other opportunity? Why, was it not possible to speak with Him in private?

And what was it they wished to say? For if it were touching the doctrines of the truth, they ought to have propounded these things publicly, and stated them before all, that the rest also might have the benefit: but if about other matters that concerned themselves, they ought not to have been so urgent. For if He suffered not the burial of a father, lest the attendance on Him should be interrupted, much less ought they to have stopped His discourse to the people, for things that were of no importance. Whence it is clear, that nothing but vainglory led them to do this; which John too declares, by saying, Neither did His brethren believe in Him; (John 7:5) and some sayings too of theirs he reports, full of great folly; telling us that they were for dragging Him to Jerusalem, for no other purpose, but that they themselves might reap glory from His miracles. For if thou do these things, it is said, show Yourself to the world. For there is no man that does anything in secret, and seeks himself to be manifest;** when also He Himself rebuked them, attributing it to their carnal mind.** That is, because the Jews were reproaching Him, and saying, Is not this the carpenter’s son, whose father and mother we know? And His brethren, are not they with us? they, willing to throw off the disparagement caused by His birth, were calling Him to the display of His miracles.

For this cause He quite repels them, being minded to heal their infirmity; since surely, had it been His will to deny His mother, He would have denied her then, when the Jews were reproaching Him. But as it is, we see that He takes so great care of her, as even at the very cross to commit her to the disciple whom He loved most of all, and to give him a great charge concerning her.

But now He does not so, out of care for her, and for His brethren. I mean, because their regard for Him was as towards a mere man, and they were vainglorious, He casts out the disease, not insulting, but correcting them."
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mardukm:
I don’t think I charged Valentine with having an “agenda,” much less call his supposed agenda “evil.” Can you please cite the section where I stated that?
Sorry I misread the second time I read your posting.
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mardukm:
Truth does not depend on consensus. Wouldn’t you agree? Please just stop for a moment and think about it.
Agreed. But I feel that the Holy Spirit works through the whole church to develop a consensus. Great theologians were developed from almost every patriarchate to defend the truth - not just the popes. St Athenasius is just 1 example - and he was only a deacon at the time. God may work through anyone to convince the church of God of the truth.
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mardukm:
The Pope has NEVER defined a single doctrine “without the Church?”
True. But that doesnt mean it is not theoretically possible. Have you read the last sentence of the decree of vatican 1?

“therefore such definitions of the Roman pontiff are of themselves and **not from the consent of the Church **irreformable.”
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mardukm:
That’s just basic ecclesiology 101 from Apostolic Canon 34. I don’t understand why that is so objectionable to the EO. I can understand if the Protestants object to it, but I don’t understand why the EO would object to the Apostolic Canon.
We dont reject Apostolic Canon 34. We just dont accept the Pope as having universal jurisdiction OVER the church. We accept his rite to call an Ecumenical council and to recieve appeals from different parts of the church, but we do not believe he has a special charisma from God which protects him from error (whether its the same infallibility as the church, or not).

The main reason I personally rejected this is the hierarchy of the church. What seperates a deacon from a priest? The charisma of consecrating the Eucharist (just 1). What seperates a priest from a bishop? The sacramental role of ordaining a priest.

If the Pope has a charisma which other bishops dont have, then this means he CEASES to be a bishop. he is something ABOVE a bishop in the chain.

Yes different bishops have different jurisdictional roles. I am not talking about the ADMINISTRATIVE differences between bishops (Metropolitan, Patriarch, etc…), I am talking about SACRAMENTAL differences. I believe all bishops to possess the same sacramental authority recieved directly from Christ (even though different bishops have different administrative responsibilities).

The idea of a universal pope seems to set-off this rule by stating there is a bishop which has a SACRAMENTAL value that other bishops do not have.
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mardukm:
As a matter of fact, THE SO-CALLED EIGHTH ECUMENICAL COUNCIL ASSERTED THAT A POPE CANNOT BE JUDGED UNJUSTLY OR HASTILY.
Lets not get into the 8th Ecumenical council.

Wasn’t Pope Liberius excommunicated hastily during the arian controversy and excommunicated by Rome herself because Rome believed him to be a heretic. Pope Felix became pope until he died a Martyr’s death. Then Pope Liberius succeeded his second reign after he was discovered to be orthodox in his belief.

Interesting case.

Also a similar thing happened during Pope Vagilius’ reign as well. And these were local councils which deposed the popes hastily.
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mardukm:
If and when he is proven to be a heretic, the Catholic Church already has the means within its laws to enact the judgment. As noted, by virtue of the law itself, the Pope will cease to be a member of the Catholic Church. When there is no Pope, the interim is governed by the Cardinal Camerlengo who acts in the capacity of a purely administrative HEAD for the Church. As such, he can apply the existing laws of the Church on the person who is no longer Pope.
Thankyou very much, this is what I was asking. Ok, this makes sense now.

In regards to your reasons why I can not accept papal infallibility… add:
  1. Lack of patristic evidence. If infallible papal pronouncements were not needed for the first 1700 years, why would they be needed now?
  2. The apparant lack of a monarchy in the early church. Matters of faith and morals were always determined by councils, rather then appeals to any 1 person.
Let me finish with a quote from St Vincent of Lerins:

[22.] Why does he say Though we? why not rather though I? He means, though Peter, though Andrew, though John, in a word, though the whole company of apostles, preach unto you other than we have preached unto you, let him be accursed. Tremendous severity! He spares neither himself nor his fellow apostles, so he may preserve unaltered the faith which was at first delivered. Nay, this is not all. He goes on Even though an angel from heaven preach unto you any other Gospel than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed. It was not enough for the preservation of the faith once delivered to have referred to man; he must needs comprehend angels also. Though we, he says, or an angel from heaven. Not that the holy angels of heaven are now capable of sinning. But what he means is: Even if that were to happen which cannot happen, — if any one, be he who he may, attempt to alter the faith once for all delivered, let him be accursed.” **(Chapter 8 “Commonitory” taken from newadvent.org/fathers/3506.htm) **

Thankyou very much Mardukm, you have been very informative.
 
Here are a few doctined defined without the approval of the Eastern Orthodox Church:
  1. papal infallibility
  2. Immaculate Conception
  3. The Assumption
Yes, and Iconophilia was defined , and Monothelitism condemned, without the Oriental Orthodox.

My point is that the Catholic Church can’t be bound to seek the approval of those who are in schism with it.

Eastern Bishops within the Catholic Communion were certainly consulted for all of these matters, and therefore the East, as far as ecclesially possible, was part of the process.

Peace and God bless!
 
Yes, and Iconophilia was defined , and Monothelitism condemned, without the Oriental Orthodox.

My point is that the Catholic Church can’t be bound to seek the approval of those who are in schism with it.

Eastern Bishops within the Catholic Communion were certainly consulted for all of these matters, and therefore the East, as far as ecclesially possible, was part of the process.

Peace and God bless!
There seems to be something wrong with this approach. First the RCC excommunicates the Eastern Orthodox for various crimes, such as omitting the filioque from the creed, then it defines dogmas such as mentioned above, then later on it says that these excommunications are hereby lifted.
 
There seems to be something wrong with this approach. First the RCC excommunicates the Eastern Orthodox for various crimes, such as omitting the filioque from the creed, then it defines dogmas such as mentioned above, then later on it says that these excommunications are hereby lifted.
There’s something wrong with this post. 😛

The RCC didn’t excommunicate the Eastern Orthodox, but that’s besides the point.

The Oriental Orthodox were excommunicated for a heresy they never upheld, for refusing to confirm a Council they were permitted to wait on confirming until they could confer with a properly elected Patriarch (Chalcedon). By the time of the Fifth Council the Oriental Orthodox were no longer in Communion, and were not consulted for their (name removed by moderator)ut. Likewise for the Sixth and Seventh. Was the Catholic/Orthodox Communion wrong for not conferring with those Churches which had been wrongly excommunicated? Would the Oriental Orthodox have attended if asked?

Whatever the case, the Oriental Orthodox Churches were not brought to the table in discussing these definitions, but those definitions are upheld by the Eastern Orthodox in the absence of Oriental confirmation, or even participation. The Eastern Orthodox certainly don’t view the confirmation of the orthodox, but schismatic (and excommunicated under erroneous pretenses) Orientals as necessary for the definition of dogma, and why should the Catholic Communion feel any different about the Eastern Orthodox who find themselves in the same place as the Oriental Orthodox with regards to the Communion of the Church?

But let me turn this around: did the Eastern Orthodox invite Rome to confirm the Council of Blachernae? Did the Eastern Orthodox invite Rome to discuss the definition of Papal Infallibility among the orthodox Churches before categorically rejecting it? If not, then why should the Catholic Churches be expected to do so, especially since the Catholic Communion actually does have representation from the various Apostolic traditions and Churches, unlike the Eastern Orthodox which have no representation from the Oriental or Latin traditions?

Peace and God bless!
 
There’s something wrong with this post. 😛

The RCC didn’t excommunicate the Eastern Orthodox, but that’s besides the point.!
Wasn’t there a papal bull of excommunication laid at the altar of the Hagia Sophia in 1054 excommunicating Michael Cerularius? And did not the Orthodox clergy generally adhere to what Michael Cerularius taught concerning the filioque? Now if the Orthodox clergy adheres to what was taught by Michael Cerularius, who was excommunicated by the RCC and they did not disown anything taught by Michael Cerularius, then what would be the logical consequence of such an event?
And if the Orthodox are not excommunicated by the RCC, then why would there have been a Fourth Crusade diverted against the Eastern Orthodox Church in constantinople? Do you claim that the Eastern Orthodox Church was never excommunicated from the RCC and that it always was in full and complete union with the RCC up until the present time?
 
Wasn’t there a papal bull of excommunication laid at the altar of the Hagia Sophia in 1054 excommunicating Michael Cerularius? And did not the Orthodox clergy generally adhere to what Michael Cerularius taught concerning the filioque? Now if the Orthodox clergy adheres to what was taught by Michael Cerularius, who was excommunicated by the RCC and they did not disown anything taught by Michael Cerularius, then what would be the logical consequence of such an event?
And if the Orthodox are not excommunicated by the RCC, then why would there have been a Fourth Crusade diverted against the Eastern Orthodox Church in constantinople? Do you claim that the Eastern Orthodox Church was never excommunicated from the RCC and that it always was in full and complete union with the RCC up until the present time?
There was never a Papal Bull of excommunication. Cardinal Humbert dropped a bull on the altar of the Hagia Sophia, but it was a bull composed by the Cardinals in Constantinople (“bull” just means a type of seal, not something from the Pope).

As for the Fourth Crusade, it wasn’t directed by the Church. A cursory review of history shows that the soldiers who sacked Constantinople were excommunicated for their offense. It was a secular action, not an ecclesial attack.

And no, the Eastern Orthodox have not been in Communion with Rome. The Patriarch of Constantinople struck the Pope from the diptychs, and severed ties. Rome didn’t help the matter by treating Constantinople as a hostile Patriarchate, and upholding Cardinal Humbert’s actions, but Rome certainly never cut off contact with the Byzantine East.

Regarding the filioque, I’m not convinced the majority of the Eastern Orthodox understand the filioque; I’ve certainly not seen much evidence of understanding on this forum. If it’s not understood, it can’t be truly rejected and the “rejectors” aren’t really heretics, just like the Oriental Orthodox are hardly heretics for rejecting Chalcedon (they understood it as espousing Nestorianism).

Peace and God bless!
 
There was never a Papal Bull of excommunication. Cardinal Humbert dropped a bull on the altar of the Hagia Sophia, but it was a bull composed by the Cardinals in Constantinople (“bull” just means a type of seal, not something from the Pope).!
That’s funny becasue I thought that Cardinal Humbert was a papal legate, sent by the Pope himself. And did the next Pope disavow and annul the excommunication of the papal legate?
 
That’s funny becasue I thought that Cardinal Humbert was a papal legate, sent by the Pope himself. And did the next Pope disavow and annul the excommunication of the papal legate?
There was no Pope when Cardinal Humbert issued the excommunication.

As for what the next Pope did, I don’t know what his stance was regarding the incident in Constantinople. I do know that the Rome’s subsequent dealings indicate that they didn’t view the “split” as definitive until much, much later.

Rome certainly viewed the situation as a strained relationship, but both sides continued communication and even shared Sacraments for quite a while. Just one example, the First Crusade was called at the request for aid from the Eastern Orthodox, specifically by Emperor Alexius. Those are hardly the actions of people who view eachother as heretics and total excommunicants.

Peace and God bless!
 
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