A
Aramis
Guest
No council has taught authoritatively that which was different from what was before. They have always endorsed prior orthodox belief.So, if I were a 1950’s Catholic transported to 2013 and believed and practiced the same as I had done all my life, I would not be in schism today?
I want to know what pro-Council Catholics think we really must assent to or be deemed schismatic. The key points, that are different to what we believed previously.
Many have picked one of several prior views, and said “This is the only correct one”.
Prior to Vatican II, Marian devotions were universal, but not universal doctrine. Since Vatican II, they specifically are universal doctrine. That is, it’s no longer acceptable to reject marian devotions in the liturgical praxis. Few bishops would have done so anyway, tho’ not a few priests did, and used the commons rather than the marian propers for lesser marian feasts.
If anything, Vatican II rejected a lot of casual (and ignorant) desires to follow protestant leads and reject the Marian cultus. It wasn’t a heresy, yet, at the time of the council… but now, public rejection of the marian cultus and its praxis as unchristian is heresy… because it’s been defined as universal doctrine. (Private rejection is not heresy, yet, as it’s not dogma, but doctrine.)
Vatican II affirmed in various dogmatic constitutions one of several competing theologumenia in each of several areas. The one most relevant to me is that it finally rejected the latinization process. No prior council had definitively stated one way or the other; it was dogmatic that union with Rome was essential, but not that the individual Rites were of intrinsic value as Rites. Vatican II defined that they have intrinsic value as rites and particular churches, not just as a means to making everyone Roman.
In many ways, Vatican II was preventative rather than reactive…