Is Christ Really Equal To The Father?

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I respectfully disagree, and will quote the Website: gotquestions.org/Jesus-first-born.html

"The description “first-born of all creation” speaks of Christ’s preexistence. He is not a creature but the eternal Creator (John 1:10). God created the world through Christ and redeemed the world through Christ (Hebrews 1:2-4).

Note that Jesus is called the first-born, not the first-created. The word “first-born” (Greek word “prototokos”) signifies priority. In the culture of the Ancient Near East, the first-born was not necessarily the oldest child. First-born referred not to birth order but to rank. The first-born possessed the inheritance and leadership.

Therefore, the phrase expresses Christ’s sovereignty over creation. After resurrecting Jesus from the dead, God gave Him authority over the Earth (Matthew 28:18). Jesus created the world, saved the world, and rules the world. He is the self-existent, acknowledged Head of creation.

Finally, the phrase recognizes Him as the Messiah: “I will make Him [Christ] My first-born, higher than the kings of the earth” (Psalm 89:27).

Six times the Lord Jesus is declared to be the first-born of God (see Romans 8:29; Colossians 1:15, 18; Hebrews 1:6; 12:23; Revelation 1:5). These passages declare the preexistence, the sovereignty, and the redemption that Christ offers.

Thus, the phrase “first-born of all creation” proclaims Christ’s preeminence. As the eternal Son of God, He created the universe. He is the Ruler of creation!"
I’m glad someone finally brought this up. Just as when Jesus is called Mary’s firstborn son, it does not all all mean he is the oldest son or first of multiple children. The title had special meaning to the relevant culture.
 
That website is a very dangerous place for Catholics to be getting information on the faith. They are classic fundamentalist/Baptist theology which teaches much error. I wouldn’t touch that website with the proverbial ten foot pole.

-Tim-
I understand what you mean Tim, but sometimes using Protestant apologetics to fight erroneous Protestant doctrines is very useful. 😉

I myself collect certain Protestant books on Baptism because they are so cogent and hit their mark so effectively when dealing with sects like the Baptists and their fundamentalist offshoots.

Hope that makes sense. 🙂
 
I understand what you mean Tim, but sometimes using Protestant apologetics to fight erroneous Protestant doctrines is very useful. 😉

I myself collect certain Protestant books on Baptism because they are so cogent and hit their mark so effectively when dealing with sects like the Baptists and their fundamentalist offshoots.

Hope that makes sense. 🙂
It makes sense. I have friends who are non-Catholic and some of them are very knowledgeable. I understand. For those who might read this thread however, the site is not good.

The teach that Catholicism is a “tragic compromise of Christianity with the pagan religions that surrounded it”, that the sacraments are not Biblical and they claim the most horrible things about priests and celibacy.

Quoting them to support Catholic teaching is like using a broken clock to tell time.

-Tim-

wanted to point out that gotquestions.org is not a good place to get information on faith and religion for anyone who might be reading. They simply teach error.
 
Excellent post! 👍 I will add this to my arsenal when that door bell rings again! 😉

The truth of that statement might be illustrated in the Bible when Jacob acquires the birthright and the blessing from his father Isaac, despite being younger than Esau. We know that Esau gave up his birth right (being the first-born) voluntarily to Jacob, so it seems to strengthen your explanation that it does not (necessarily) refer to chronological birth, but rather authority and inheritance.
Thank you, and I think your addition is a wonderful illustration. I will add it to my arsenal.🙂
 
The Greek word “firstborn” (PROTOTOKOS) is used 130 times in the Bible. It always indicates a beginning of something that was not in existence before. PROTOTOKOS never becomes “detached” from the primary meaning of a beginning of existence like that link shows that you sent.

Next, grammatically the phrase “firstborn of creation” (PROTOTOKOS PASHS KTISEWS) demands that Jesus be part of creation; a “creature.” This is because this grammatical structure is a “partitive genitive” which means that the firstborn has to be part of the group mentioned. The expression “the firstborn of” occurs over 30 times in the Bible, and in every instance the meaning is the same: the firstborn is part of the group. The “firstborn of the sheep” is a sheep (Gen 4:4), the “first born of the animals” is an animal, (Neh. 10:36) and*“the firstborn of creation” is a creature!
The genitive places the Christ aspart ofthe created order. So the evidence is explicit that Jesus is a created being.
In Colossians, I want to make a few points.

(1) Despite some Jehovah Witnesses’ translation of Colossians 1 to say that Christ was the creator of all other things, the verse simply does not say this. Christ is the creator of “all things,” plain and simple. It is unfortunate that whole new words have to be added to the biblical texts to sustain JW theology. Like the case in John 1, with the article*** a*** for “the Word was a god,” the translation has been tampered with.

(2) “First-born” is not necessarily indicative of coming into being. Even other uses of “born” does not mean when something is first created; when a baby is born, he or she is not created. The ancient creed used by Catholics, Orthodox, and many Protestants says that Christ was “begotten, not made.” The theology is of course that Christ was never created, but we was begotten eternally by the Father. He was born eternally from the Father. These verses pointed out to somehow show that Christ was *created *are nothing new. The Church has had them for 2,000 years. What is more likely to be correct: the understanding that developed organically, and in succession to, the apostolic era — or the understanding originating in the 19th century, with no connection to the first century or the original apostolic teaching?

(3) The title “first-born” is a technical term that does not equate to the first in a succession. It related to who in the household had the most privilege and received special inheritance. The term signified pre-eminence given by a father to his son.

In the Old Testament, Isaac, Jacob, and Ephraim received the blessing associated with the first-born even though they were not first-born in succession.
 
That website is a very dangerous place for Catholics to be getting information on the faith. They are classic fundamentalist/Baptist theology which teaches much error. I wouldn’t touch that website with the proverbial ten foot pole.

-Tim-
Tim, generally, I stay away from Protestant Websites, but I didn’t see anything wrong in that particular explanation. In fact, i thought the author did a good job of explaining why Christ was the “first-born” of creation. For safety’s sake, I will keep away from them now.
 
I’m glad someone finally brought this up. Just as when Jesus is called Mary’s firstborn son, it does not all all mean he is the oldest son or first of multiple children. The title had special meaning to the relevant culture.
Since Mary was a Virgin, I think Jesus was her first born in every way, but that’s not to say that Joseph wasn’t a widower and didn’t have older children from an earlier marriage, although James, who is always referred to as Jesus’ brother was younger than Jesus. Of course cousins, etc. were referred to as brother and sister in first century Palestine. Jesus’ extended family could have been quite large. We just don’t know.
 
In Colossians, I want to make a few points.

(1) Despite some Jehovah Witnesses’ translation of Colossians 1 to say that Christ was the creator of all other things, the verse simply does not say this. Christ is the creator of “all things,” plain and simple. It is unfortunate that whole new words have to be added to the biblical texts to sustain JW theology. Like the case in John 1, with the article*** a*** for “the Word was a god,” the translation has been tampered with.

(2) “First-born” is not necessarily indicative of coming into being. Even other uses of “born” does not mean when something is first created; when a baby is born, he or she is not created. The ancient creed used by Catholics, Orthodox, and many Protestants says that Christ was “begotten, not made.” The theology is of course that Christ was never created, but we was begotten eternally by the Father. He was born eternally from the Father. These verses pointed out to somehow show that Christ was *created *are nothing new. The Church’s has had them for 2,000 years. What is more likely to be correct: the understanding that developed organically, and in succession to, the apostolic era — or the understanding originating in the 19th century, with no connection to the first century or the original apostolic teaching?

(3) The title “first-born” is a technical term that does not equate to the first in a succession. It related to who in the household had the most privilege and received special inheritance. The term signified pre-eminence given by a father to his son.

In the Old Testament, Isaac, Jacob, and Ephraim received the blessing associated with the first-born even though they were not first-born in succession.
Wonderful post!🙂
 
Since Mary was a Virgin, I think Jesus was her first born in every way, but that’s not to say that Joseph wasn’t a widower and didn’t have older children from an earlier marriage, although James, who is always referred to as Jesus’ brother was younger than Jesus. Of course cousins, etc. were referred to as brother and sister in first century Palestine. Jesus’ extended family could have been quite large. We just don’t know.
When the issue of brotherhood arises it is useful to remember Genesis Chapter 12 and 13

Abraham was Lot’s uncle.
Genesis Chapter 12:5
And he (Abram) took his wife Sarai, and Lot, the son of his brother, and all the substance which they had come to possess, and the lives which they had acquired in Haran, and they departed in order to go to the land of Canaan. And when they arrived in it,
Genesis 13:11
And Lot chose for himself the region around the Jordan, and he withdrew by way of the east. **And they were divided, one brother from the other. ** 12 Abram dwelt in the land of Canaan. In truth, Lot stayed in the towns that were around the Jordan, and he lived in Sodom.
And there you have it, uncle and nephew are called “Brothers” and this is not the only instance of this custom.
 
When the issue of brotherhood arises it is useful to remember Genesis Chapter 12 and 13

Abraham was Lot’s uncle.

And there you have it, uncle and nephew are called “Brothers” and this is not the only instance of this custom.
Thank you for providing a quote. I agree with you completely on this. I’m not sure if I was not clear in my post or if you wanted to provide a scripture passage (which I should have done, of course), but I do agree 100% with what you wrote.
 
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JerryZ:
Genesis Chapter 12:5
And he (Abram) took his wife Sarai, and Lot, the son of his brother, and all the substance which they had come to possess, and the lives which they had acquired in Haran, and they departed in order to go to the land of Canaan. And when they arrived in it,

Genesis 13:11
And Lot chose for himself the region around the Jordan, and he withdrew by way of the east. **And they were divided, one brother from the other. **12 Abram dwelt in the land of Canaan. In truth, Lot stayed in the towns that were around the Jordan, and he lived in Sodom.
This good reference material to save, in case the subject comes up within our own circles or on the web, to refute those who are not well informed about the term “brother.” Thanks, Jerry.
 
It makes sense. I have friends who are non-Catholic and some of them are very knowledgeable. I understand. For those who might read this thread however, the site is not good.

The teach that Catholicism is a “tragic compromise of Christianity with the pagan religions that surrounded it”, that the sacraments are not Biblical and they claim the most horrible things about priests and celibacy.

Quoting them to support Catholic teaching is like using a broken clock to tell time.

-Tim-

wanted to point out that gotquestions.org is not a good place to get information on faith and religion for anyone who might be reading. They simply teach error.
INDEED.
👍
 
Yes and how is this pertinent to my post?
Sometimes the response you get to your post has nothing to do with your post but everything to do with Catholicity. This bit of information may have been meant for someone following this thread. God Bless you.
 
Sometimes the response you get to your post has nothing to do with your post but everything to do with Catholicity. This bit of information may have been meant for someone following this thread. God Bless you.
What do you mean by Catholicity?
 
John can speak in the 1st person because he was a witness to the life of Christ, the other 3 gospels were written by students of the Apostles. They necessarily had to be in the 3rd person.
Matthew was an Apostle. He was an eyewitness.

-Tim-
 
Matthew was an Apostle. He was an eyewitness.

-Tim-
But did Matthew the apostle write the Gospel of Matthew? It’s debatable. Modern dating seems to place it too late to have been written by an eyewitness, nowhere in the gospel does the author claim to have been an eyewitness as in John, nor does Matthew’s Greek, which is much smoother than Mark’s, bear marks of translation from either Aramaic or Hebrew.

Also Matthew drew heavily on Mark for source material, as well as the Q source. I don’t see why an eyewitness would have to draw so heavily on Mark and other sources. Of the 661 verses in Mark, Matthew includes 600.

I’m not saying you are wrong, just wondering about those things. Biblical scholars usually say the author of Matthew is anonymous.
 
I stand corrected!:o my apologies:thumbsup:

Most biblical scholars today do not believe the Gospel of John was written by John bar Zebedee, if that is, indeed, who you meant, but by another who was an eyewitness. Gerald O’Collins, SJ, a great biblical scholar believes that the Gospel of John was set down by someone who was setting down the words of the “Beloved Disciple,” and of course scholars debate constantly about his identity. Some have ascribed his identity to Lazarus, some even to Mary Magdalene! To me, Mary Magdalene seems impossible simply because the “Beloved Disciple” is always referred to as “he.” I’m of the opinion that Mary Magdalene’s discipleship is overstated by some anyway. Certainly she loved and followed the Lord, but I believe more as a companion of the Blessed Mother and her sister, who is often identified as “Jesus’ sister,” when in reality she is his aunt. It is explicitly stated in the Gospel of John, of course, that the testimony is that of an eyewitness. With regard to O’Collins, who I like and respect greatly, I have my doubts about the “Beloved Disciple.” He was present at the Last Supper, and I’ve always been taught that only thirteen persons were at the Last Supper. If the Beloved Disciple was among them, he would have to have been one of the Twelve, yet O’Collins does not believe him to have been one of the Twelve. And, strangely, there is no, and I mean no, “Zebedee” material in the Gospel of John, which would be strange if he was the author.

Can you shed any more light on this?
 
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