W
Warrior1979
Guest
The argument sounds convincing, but I can’t reconcile this with Christ’s temptation. If Christ lacked the ability to do evil, then the temptation to do evil must also be lacking, thus rendering Christ’s temptation meaningless.Seems as though Aquinas would say that evil does not exist as real force or thing in the universe; it is only the privation or lack of good with respect to a given thing. To “do evil” is just to fail to do good to some degree. For God to “do evil” would simply mean that he failed to “do good,” and that would mean that his goodness was lacking or deficient in some respect. Since God is pure goodness itself, to propose that God could “do evil” would be to propose that he lacks omni-benevolence, and thus is not God. To be able “to do evil” does actually not demonstrate an increase in power (potence) but a decrease in goodness (benevolence) – because it is a lack of willingness to do good. The “power to do evil” is thus merely the lack of power to do good, and thus actually a logical foil to omni-benevolence, which is why such a “power” (really a lack of power) is not an attributable to God. God does not “lack” the “power to do evil,” because evil does not exist–thus this is not a demonstration of lack of omnipotence. There is thus no contradiction between omnipotence and omni-benevolence. Atheists love to try to define the two terms differently than classical theists and Christian theologists in order to try to create a contradiction. But as usual, Thomas Aquinas has dispelled the nonsense. If you’re having a problem with refuting infantile arguments against God from the “existence” of evil, ite ad Thomam (Go to Thomas).