Is God capable of evil?

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Seems as though Aquinas would say that evil does not exist as real force or thing in the universe; it is only the privation or lack of good with respect to a given thing. To “do evil” is just to fail to do good to some degree. For God to “do evil” would simply mean that he failed to “do good,” and that would mean that his goodness was lacking or deficient in some respect. Since God is pure goodness itself, to propose that God could “do evil” would be to propose that he lacks omni-benevolence, and thus is not God. To be able “to do evil” does actually not demonstrate an increase in power (potence) but a decrease in goodness (benevolence) – because it is a lack of willingness to do good. The “power to do evil” is thus merely the lack of power to do good, and thus actually a logical foil to omni-benevolence, which is why such a “power” (really a lack of power) is not an attributable to God. God does not “lack” the “power to do evil,” because evil does not exist–thus this is not a demonstration of lack of omnipotence. There is thus no contradiction between omnipotence and omni-benevolence. Atheists love to try to define the two terms differently than classical theists and Christian theologists in order to try to create a contradiction. But as usual, Thomas Aquinas has dispelled the nonsense. If you’re having a problem with refuting infantile arguments against God from the “existence” of evil, ite ad Thomam (Go to Thomas).
The argument sounds convincing, but I can’t reconcile this with Christ’s temptation. If Christ lacked the ability to do evil, then the temptation to do evil must also be lacking, thus rendering Christ’s temptation meaningless.
 
The argument sounds convincing, but I can’t reconcile this with Christ’s temptation. If Christ lacked the ability to do evil, then the temptation to do evil must also be lacking, thus rendering Christ’s temptation meaningless.
If you read Philippians 2:6-7 (NIV), you will see the following:

“Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage; rather, he made himself nothing by taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.”

This communicates to us that when Christ became man, he added the nature of man to himself. To Christ’s divinity He added humanity (i.e., made in human likeness). As such, Christ was subject to such things as hunger, thirst, pain, sadness and temptation.
 
Seems as though Aquinas would say that evil does not exist as real force or thing in the universe; it is only the privation or lack of good with respect to a given thing. To “do evil” is just to fail to do good to some degree. For God to “do evil” would simply mean that he failed to “do good,” and that would mean that his goodness was lacking or deficient in some respect. Since God is pure goodness itself, to propose that God could “do evil” would be to propose that he lacks omni-benevolence, and thus is not God. To be able “to do evil” does actually not demonstrate an increase in power (potence) but a decrease in goodness (benevolence) – because it is a lack of willingness to do good. The “power to do evil” is thus merely the lack of power to do good, and thus actually a logical foil to omni-benevolence, which is why such a “power” (really a lack of power) is not an attributable to God. God does not “lack” the “power to do evil,” because evil does not exist–thus this is not a demonstration of lack of omnipotence. There is thus no contradiction between omnipotence and omni-benevolence. Atheists love to try to define the two terms differently than classical theists and Christian theologists in order to try to create a contradiction. But as usual, Thomas Aquinas has dispelled the nonsense. If you’re having a problem with refuting infantile arguments against God from the “existence” of evil, ite ad Thomam (Go to Thomas).
Yes, the only way to in fact refute the Problem of Evil is to deny that eviol exists.
I have no problem with that. Some things just seem evil from our limited POV. The suffering of countless human beings is not evil, because it serves a higher good. Hitler was not evil because also, by this reasoning, the Holocaust served a higher good.

The main problem is that most Christian denominations, and most certainly Catholicism, do define several things as evil. So, they claim evil exists, and if their claim is correct, and their other claim that God is the creator of everything is also correct, that means God is capable of doing evil.
And it does not matter whether evil is consiered a thing or a privation. If I build a wall, brick by brick and then cut a hole in it, am I or am I not the creator of this hole?
Now, if I build a wall and, instead of cutting a hole into it, just leave out a few bricks to form a hole, am I or am I not the creator of this hole?
 
The argument sounds convincing, but I can’t reconcile this with Christ’s temptation. If Christ lacked the ability to do evil, then the temptation to do evil must also be lacking, thus rendering Christ’s temptation meaningless.
Christ lacks the ability to do evil because He is motivated entirely by love - and evil stems from the absence of love.
 
belorg;7919546:
Evil doesn’t exist but it is real.
If evil is real, then so is the Porblem of evil.
Much evil serves a higher evil purpose! It is motivated by an apparent higher good: self-interest.
Not in the long run, Tony. In the long run, since all evil is created by God, and supposing God is good, all evil has to serve a higher good purpose.
Not when the Creator creates creators!
Somehow thiests seem to think that posing lits of intremediate causes excuses God from Hs resposnsibility. It’s like saying that if I use a stick to hit you, then I am not responsible, but the stick is.
You are indeed but God isn’t the Creator of the holes!
God creates everything but not the privations. A nice theory, now can you back this up with facts?
 
If evil is real, then so is the Problem of evil.
Evil poses a theoretical and a practical problem.
Not in the long run, Tony. In the long run, since all evil is created by God, and supposing God is good, all evil has to serve a higher good purpose.
The highest good purpose is Love - which entails creativity, enjoyment and fulfilment.
Somehow theists seem to think that posing lists of intermediate causes excuses God from His responsibility. It’s like saying that if I use a stick to hit you, then I am not responsible, but the stick is.
A stick is an instrument without self-control.
God creates everything but not the privations. A nice theory, now can you back this up with facts?
Holes and shadows are not created. They are consequences of finitude.
 
If evil is real, then so is the Porblem of evil.

God creates everything but not the privations. A nice theory, now can you back this up with facts?
As we are discussing transcendental concepts, requesting “facts” is a non-sequitur. To say evil is “created” is also somewhat inaccurate. If a wall is constructed with a hole, you are not creating a hole but a wall, which has a hole. A hole is simply an absence of a part of wall. You cannot create a hole on it’s own. The word hole is used to describe conceptually the condition or state of the object as it pertains to an absence of material or substance. It’s alway used in reference to something, implicitly or explicitly but it is not a ‘thing’ on its own.
 
As we are discussing transcendental concepts, requesting “facts” is a non-sequitur. To say evil is “created” is also somewhat inaccurate. If a wall is constructed with a hole, you are not creating a hole but a wall, which has a hole. A hole is simply an absence of a part of wall. You cannot create a hole on it’s own. The word hole is used to describe conceptually the condition or state of the object as it pertains to an absence of material or substance. It’s alway used in reference to something, implicitly or explicitly but it is not a ‘thing’ on its own.
God created a wall with a hole and He could have created a wall without any holes. So He cretaed the holes. Whether this hole can exist on its own is irrelevant.
If you praise God for the good, the logocal thing to do is also blame Him for the evil. That is, if there is evil. As I said, if evil is just an illusion, the discussion becomes irrelevant, but so does Catholicism and virtually every brand of Chritianity.And if evil exits, then God is responsible for it
 
Evil poses a theoretical and a practical problem.
The highest good purpose is Love - which entails creativity, enjoyment and fulfilment.
A stick is an instrument without self-control.
Holes and shadows are not created. They are consequences of finitude.
Holes are created and so are shadows. There are walls without holes. So, if God did not want holes, he would have created walls without them. Ergo, He is responsible for the hole.
 
Holes are created and so are shadows. There are walls without holes. So, if God did not want holes, he would have created walls without them. Ergo, He is responsible for the hole.
Holes are not created nor are shadows. They result from the absence of some material or the absence of light rays. God permits them and is responsible for them but they are negative aspects of reality which are an inevitable consequence of a physical universe. To demand light without shadows is unreasonable. It is doubtful if there could be life in the universe without light but even it if were possible it would lack all advantages of sight and the beauty of shapes and colours. In effect you are assuming you know how to create a better universe than the one we are in - which is rather presumptuous to put it mildly…
 
Yes, but as I made clear, being incapable of a negative is actually a positive.
👍

Since I have not addressed you, I don’t know what you made clear.

However, . . .

Yes - you say - you have a capacity not available to God.

Interesting.

And, let me understand, . . .

You say God’s incapacity for evil is actually a positive [as in a double negative, I assume].

Yes, quite interesting.

Is there not a difference between capacity and choice?

Is it not that God could be evil, but chooses it not.

How does God’s incapacity fit with God’s omnipotence?

How have you come to the knowledge of God’s incapacity [as opposed to God’s choice].

Also, what is the inference of stating an incapacity for a negative is a positive.

In itself, that is quite evident, is it not?

So, why state it?

Unless, you are stating something about the nature of God.

Are you?

Are you stating that the reason God is good is because He is incapable of being evil?

Quite . . . remarkable . . . of you, if you are [but then, perhaps that is just another example of yours, of what you can do that God cannot].

🙂
 
How about this, Wans. You provide a logical deductive form of the problem of evil and I’ll respond to it. This post above is just an argument from outrage.
The argument from outrage? No, it’s merely the argument from common sense.

It’s simple. God can apparently do anything - or, according to some apologists, anything that is not logically contradictory. And, God is apparently benevolent.

Yet earthquakes kill people. Disease kills people. People kill people.

If God is omnipotent, he could stop this. If he’s benevolent, he should want to stop it. Yet he doesn’t. So he’s either not omnipotent, or not benevolent. The only other option is to fabricate all sorts of excuses about why he might choose not to do what any right-minded person would consider to be “the right thing.”

Whether or not this satisfies your criterion of a “logical deductive form of the problem of evil” is irrelevant - if we saw analogous behaviour in a human being we would have no problem in labelling that person as evil, in the absence of any other mitigating factors. There are no mitigating factors excusing God’s evil, other than those created arbitrarily by those who trying to justify their claim that God is a lovely fella.
 
Really?

I challenge you to read some of Thomas Aquinas, then come back here with a refutation of (some of) his work. Show me where it is "unsubstantiated"in real terms, not just in a third-grade mentality “Yes it is! No it isn’t!” argument.
Well, it’s easy. There’s no evidence for the existence of God, let alone for any reasoning he might employ to allow millions of innocent people to suffer. Therefore, any reasoning an apologist might come out with as to why reality doesn’t correlate with the alleged characteristics of omnipotence and benevolence, can be nothing but speculation.
Tell us what you mean by “ineffecient framework”, please, you lost me there.
I simply mean that the excuses invented to defend God’s evil make all sorts of unnecessary assumptions and rely upon the apologist pretending to know what this undetectable supernatural ghost is thinking.
And perhaps you can “prove”, through the example of even one single news story, that the God that Christians believe in is not loving and omnipotent.
No, I can’t, and I don’t have to. I’m not the one making the claim that he is both of those things. I’m just pointing out that basic observation of world events does not support such a claim. And without good evidence to the contrary, the simplest, most efficient conclusion is that he is not both benevolent and omnipotent. (Actually, the most sensible conclusion is that he doesn’t exist, but I’m pretending that he does for the purpose of discussion.)
In other words, how about showing us some philosophical “meat” behind your claims?
I don’t need to use philosophical constructs to point out the bleedin’ obvious. Why do theists keep trying to hide behind philsophy? The amount of times I’ve seen posts claiming that unless one is trained in philosophy one can’t understand the arguments. It’s ridiculous. The arguments aren’t complicated, they’re just dumb.
 
If God is omnipotent, he could stop this. If he’s benevolent, he should want to stop it. Yet he doesn’t. So he’s either not omnipotent, or not benevolent. The only other option is to fabricate all sorts of excuses about why he might choose not to do what any right-minded person would consider to be “the right thing.”

Whether or not this satisfies your criterion of a “logical deductive form of the problem of evil” is irrelevant - if we saw analogous behaviour in a human being we would have no problem in labelling that person as evil, in the absence of any other mitigating factors. There are no mitigating factors excusing God’s evil, other than those created arbitrarily by those who trying to justify their claim that God is a lovely fella.
Because He is benevolent He does not stop this. His omnipotence could end evil in the sense of disordered wills, He simply would have to do away with free will in creatures.

Evil of itself is nothing, it only inheres in good. So a lion being good in its way is evil to the lamb that it eats. You cannot eliminate the absence of being or destroy a privation.

Furthermore, if God does exist and He is who He says He is in Christianity, then He does right the wrong eschatalogically. We just have to wait.

Given the premises of atheism, I find it hard to discover what “the right thing to do” is? Should we not just pursue our personal preferences to whatever ends they lead given that action is meaningless? So you accuse God of being wicked – or not existing – based on non-existent “right action”. Somewhat of a paradox, don’t you think?
 
The argument from outrage? No, it’s merely the argument from common sense.

It’s simple. God can apparently do anything - or, according to some apologists, anything that is not logically contradictory. And, God is apparently benevolent.

Yet earthquakes kill people. Disease kills people. People kill people.

If God is omnipotent, he could stop this. If he’s benevolent, he should want to stop it. Yet he doesn’t. So he’s either not omnipotent, or not benevolent. The only other option is to fabricate all sorts of excuses about why he might choose not to do what any right-minded person would consider to be “the right thing.”

Whether or not this satisfies your criterion of a “logical deductive form of the problem of evil” is irrelevant - if we saw analogous behaviour in a human being we would have no problem in labelling that person as evil, in the absence of any other mitigating factors. There are no mitigating factors excusing God’s evil, other than those created arbitrarily by those who trying to justify their claim that God is a lovely fella.
You have still only posted emotional objections. Post a logical objection or admit that this is simply your opinion. I debated with you on the problem of evil before and you called my emotional objection to the problem “illogical”. I’m reversing it on you. Give me a logical deductible argument or all this is is the opinion of an angry atheist.
 
Seems as though Aquinas would say that evil does not exist as real force or thing in the universe; it is only the privation or lack of good with respect to a given thing. To “do evil” is just to fail to do good to some degree. For God to “do evil” would simply mean that he failed to “do good,” and that would mean that his goodness was lacking or deficient in some respect. Since God is pure goodness itself, to propose that God could “do evil” would be to propose that he lacks omni-benevolence, and thus is not God. To be able “to do evil” does actually not demonstrate an increase in power (potence) but a decrease in goodness (benevolence) – because it is a lack of willingness to do good. The “power to do evil” is thus merely the lack of power to do good, and thus actually a logical foil to omni-benevolence, which is why such a “power” (really a lack of power) is not an attributable to God. God does not “lack” the “power to do evil,” because evil does not exist–thus this is not a demonstration of lack of omnipotence. There is thus no contradiction between omnipotence and omni-benevolence. Atheists love to try to define the two terms differently than classical theists and Christian theologists in order to try to create a contradiction. But as usual, Thomas Aquinas has dispelled the nonsense. If you’re having a problem with refuting infantile arguments against God from the “existence” of evil, ite ad Thomam (Go to Thomas).
How are we (and Thomas Aquinas) defining evil? What I mean is, does evil include the subjective suffering of those who are the recipients (from others’ actions, disease, mental anguish, war, poverty, natural catastrophes), or only the behavior of the actors who inflict pain on others? If evil includes both the actor’s behavior and the consequences felt by the recipient, how does this argument explain the recipient’s suffering?
 
The argument from outrage? No, it’s merely the argument from common sense.

It’s simple. God can apparently do anything - or, according to some apologists, anything that is not logically contradictory. And, God is apparently benevolent.

Yet earthquakes kill people. Disease kills people. People kill people.

If God is omnipotent, he could stop this. If he’s benevolent, he should want to stop it. Yet he doesn’t. So he’s either not omnipotent, or not benevolent. The only other option is to fabricate all sorts of excuses about why he might choose not to do what any right-minded person would consider to be “the right thing.”

Whether or not this satisfies your criterion of a “logical deductive form of the problem of evil” is irrelevant - if we saw analogous behaviour in a human being we would have no problem in labelling that person as evil, in the absence of any other mitigating factors. There are no mitigating factors excusing God’s evil, other than those created arbitrarily by those who trying to justify their claim that God is a lovely fella.
Rabbi Harold Kushner, a follower of Conservative Judaism (midway in orthodoxy between Orthodox and Reform Judaism), would agree with you. In his book “When Bad Things Happen to Good People” (not “Why”), he presents all the customary arguments that attempt to explain the “problem of evil and suffering” and discounts all of them. He concludes that G-d is benevolent (NOT evil) but, at the same time, NOT omnipotent. This conclusion is very un-Jewish, and, I would imagine, very un-Christian as well. Judaism believes that suffering is allowed in view of the faith that it has a purpose: it is not regarded as random or meaningless. We may not see the purpose and we may believe that G-d is unsympathetic or sinful in allowing it to happen, but our lack of understanding of its purpose reveals that G-d is of a nature that is incomprehensible to our human reason, and hence requires faith. We have only a glimpse of the “features” of G-d as revealed by Scripture and Tradition. The mere fact that He is a spiritual, non-materialistic, unique Entity makes Him unfathomable, according to our conception of what constitutes life. And yet He is revealed in our world through our own behaviors and interactions–even while His essence is different from ours–since we are created in His image and thus share to a lesser degree His internal attributes. Finally, there is a Jewish story of a Rabbi (I forget whom) who on the eve of Yom Kippur (Day of Atonement), on which Jews are required to repent of their sins toward G-d and toward their fellow man (the latter sins must be addressed directly toward others), admits of his sins but calls them small in comparison to the great sins that G-d has committed through disease, suffering, and natural disaster. This is followed by the Rabbi’s prayer for forgiveness. I think the moral of the story is that though we may struggle with G-d, plead with Him, reason with Him, it is ultimately only through faith that we can truly understand Him.
 
If someone had the opportunity and ability to prevent a piano from falling on someone else and killing them, yet they chose to stand by and do nothing in the certain knowledge of the result, would you consider them evil, or loving and benevolent?

It beggars belief how theists can sit there and claim their god is both loving and omnipotent, when a quick look in the newspapers demonstrates the falsity of such a claim.

Of course, if one insists on the existence of an omnipotent, omniscient, benevolent, undetectable sky-fairy, then one is forced to fabricate an increasingly elaborate and inefficient framework of unsubstantiated reasoning to explain away the irrefutable fact that one’s belief does not correlate with reality.

No doubt such laughable exculpation will unfold in this thread.
Wanstronian:

What is amazing to the majority of us is how much verisimilitude and sophistication the story, the story line, the account(s), the explanation(s), the answers, the unity of thought, the intelligence, the thousands of people, etc., was and, as we continue to read it, still is: 1,900 years later. I’m not so sure that those unsophisticated, primitive men and women weren’t well beyond some on this forum, to whom such a contradiction has never dawned.

What’s even more amazing is that the primitives, who compiled the seventy-three Books, were able to recognize the verisimilitude and sophistication - despite the seeming contradictions (that Revelation provided answers for) of those much more ancient (and, therefore, supposedly even more unsophisticated) people who preceded them.

People who believe as you do are want to explain their own contradiction: the assertion that because those people were ancients and, as such, could not have known much of anything, much less be capable of carrying forward a fairly unified yet complex tradition for thousands of years: though the three modern traditions, through the prophets and the prophecies, side by side with the historical macro-events (that anthropologists have found the ruins and cities of) still virtually word for word, clear to the present time. One would expect to find a storyline that persists more in keeping with the Greek action-thriller tragedies. To be honest, the Jesus story is not the most nail-biting, engrossing storyline to come from the ancients. But, it is the one that has persisted! And, that it has persisted is merely the tip of the iceberg.

I wonder now whose “exculpation is more truly laughable,” monsieur? 😉

God bless,
jd
 
God created a wall with a hole and He could have created a wall without any holes. So He cretaed the holes. Whether this hole can exist on its own is irrelevant.
If you praise God for the good, the logocal thing to do is also blame Him for the evil. That is, if there is evil. As I said, if evil is just an illusion, the discussion becomes irrelevant, but so does Catholicism and virtually every brand of Chritianity.And if evil exits, then God is responsible for it
Unfortunately, the idea that evil is illusionary is not the same as evil being a privation of good. These are two different concepts and you are confusing the position of Catholics. We are not denying the existence of evil but are defining what it is. To say that darkness is a lack of light does not deny there is a concept darkness or that is has effects. I’ll use another example and see if it clarifies the issue.

If you are in a completely dark room and were to shine an operating flashlight you would see an illuminated area on the wall. If you were to ask a physicist is the light from the flashlight generating the darkness around the illuminated area and they would respond with a variant of ‘No, the flashlight is generating only the illuminated area via wave-like and particle-like properties light.’ However, the darkness still has the effect of veiling anything that would be on the wall but it is not a thing that is created by the light of the flashlight.

To simply assert that God created evil would not be logically (or in the above example, scientifically) consistent when it is positioned as a privation.
 
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