Thanks for your response. But are you sure? I mean I know the apologist wrote it is not but what do I make of these quotes:
For in a way wonderful beyond expression or conception, he is born of his mother without any diminution of her maternal virginity. As he afterwards went forth from the sepulcher while it was closed and sealed, and entered the room where his disciples were assembled, although “the doors were closed” (Jn 20:19), or, not to depart from natural events which we witness every day, as the rays of the sun penetrate the substance of glass without breaking or injuring it in the least: so, but in a more incomprehensible manner, did Jesus Christ come forth from his mother’s womb without injury to her maternal virginity. …To Eve it was said, “In pain you shall bring forth children” (Gen 3:16). Mary was exempt from this law, for preserving her virginal integrity inviolate, she brought forth Jesus the Son of God, without experiencing, as we have already said, any sense of pain.
The Catechism of the Council of Trent
This union of the Mother with the Son in the work of salvation is made manifest…also at the birth of our Lord, who did not diminish His Mother’s virginal integrity but sanctified it.
Lumen Gentium, 57: the Dogmatic Constitution of the Church, Vatican ll Council
Or are these not infallible teachings?
Just asking