Is intuitive knowledge fallible?

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BenSinner

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Theologians and philosophers alike seem to agree that intuitive knowledge is a ‘pure’ form of knowledge un-corrupted by rationale and logic.

That’s nice, but there are many religious leaders who are said to have this intuitive knowledge where they just “know” and have no need to reason anything out because they are at one with the truth.

Jesus is said to have intuitive knowledge because he is God. He is the Holy Spirit.
The Hindu gods are said to have intuitive knowledge because they are gods.
Buddha is said to have intuitive knowledge because he reached enlightenment .

They all claim to have intuitive knowledge, but their intuitive knowledge contradict each other. So either someone from this list is lying or their intuitive knowledge is fallible and they just don’t know it.
 
I think it’s important to define intuitive knowledge in each case.
 
Is it me or does this entire word wall have no purpose at all?

You first made a claim about knowledge. Then that there is a difference between the claims of different people, all whom you said contradict. Therefore concluding that people must be lying.

You don’t say! I’d say that was pretty obvious.

Just saying you have something is as valid as me saying I’m the Pope. You have to have evidence that stands against the alternative - proving the validity of your claim - or why bother. You could literally ‘claim’ anything.

Research and study is fortunately something Christianity has philosophically. It’s constantly put through the grinder Whilst Hinduism and Buddhism, they arent sustainable view points at all. Their beliefs are beyond bizarre logically and it sees them constantly last less than 5 seconds in online debates.
 
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Anything to do with humans is fallible as far as I know. The only knowledge that could be infallible is that which comes from God.
 
I think a relevant point on this is that intuitive knowledge as per Christianity is necessarily a gift of grace, an “intellectual vision” granted by God. But as others have said, we, as finite beings, regardless of how perfect and profound the communication or transmission of knowledge may be, are nonetheless limited in our understanding and must recognize that, as 1 Cor 13 says, “Now I know in part; then I shall know fully, even as I am fully known.”
 
If your conscience is guided by the right canon, then your intuition is positive. However, if a child is taught that murdering the enemy (for example) tribe is good, which can be done, when he grows up, his intuition is going to be corrupted.
 
It is fallible inasfar as we apply and respon d to 'intuitive knowledge

1786 Faced with a moral choice, conscience can make either a right judgment in accordance with reason and the divine law or, on the contrary, an erroneous judgment that departs from them.

1776 “Deep within his conscience man discovers a law which he has not laid upon himself but which he must obey. Its voice, ever calling him to love and to do what is good and to avoid evil, sounds in his heart at the right moment. . . . For man has in his heart a law inscribed by God. . . . His conscience is man’s most secret core and his sanctuary. There he is alone with God whose voice echoes in his depths.”

The Catechism of the Catholic Church does have more to say about the issue:
http://www.vatican.va/archive/ccc_css/archive/catechism/p3s1c1a6.htm
 
BenSinner said:
Theologians and philosophers alike seem to agree that intuitive knowledge is a ‘pure’ form of knowledge un-corrupted by rationale and logic.
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And it is supposed too that all of us are capable of intuitive knowledge. And if we are, it is valid to ask: What is, Ben, the part in your knowledge that deserves to be called intuitive? Can you provide an example of it?
 
TheButler said:
Unless it is deemed to come from God by a human?
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No. People can be wrong even about that. The only way we can really have confidence to know it is God’s Word is if God reveals it to us directly or through a divinely inspired and authorized authority like His Church.
 
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