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FrDavid96
Guest
Now I’m thoroughly confused.Not only is it liturgically correct…it is pretty much mandated for the season of Easter, starting with the Vigil on Saturday all the way through Penticost.
The 50 day period of increased solemnity (not solemness) based on the feast being celebrated brings about the Gospel Acclamation before the Proclamation of the Gospel (“The Gospel of the Lord”) which includes the versicle and after the Gospel has been proclaimed, without versicle.
“The word of the Lord”, which is the closing of the first 2 readings, is used only for said readings and not for the Psalm nor the Gospel.
More information on this can be found in USCCB publication #7-022 and #5-544
After a while it’s not confusing…it’s eagerly looked forward to.
Best regards and God bless.
RM
If it’s “mandated” no one bothered to tell the folks who printed the Sacramentary, and no one bothered to tell the folks who printed the GIRM.
I can’t locate those USCCB documents, so I’m not going to deny them. But I can’t help but wonder why such a mandate is absent from the Sacramentary. Please help. Perhaps it’s in the Lectionary and I never noticed it?
–confused:shrug: