Is is liturgically correct to sing the Alleluia after the Gospel is read

[maryjk]

Good question. I have been wondering myself for awhile, or at least since I was a visitor at a church in PA.

I wrote it off as at the whim of the Priest.

He also says, “the Lord IS with you.” Rather than the proper, “The Lord be with you.” And that is just the beginning of the problems with the Mass. The Extraordinary Ministers are standing next to him well before he receives Communion. So are the altar servers. I guess its because they all stay after joining hands for the Lord’s Prayer.

Last time we went, my 13 year old asked if we had really been to Mass.

 

[Corki]

Yes and no. Each of the Sacraments has its own liturgical books, also funerals and RCIA etc… The entire collection of such liturgical books are in harmony with each other. One would never contradict the other (unless a more recent printing of one includes some recent changes) Something might be spelled out in the RCIA in more detail than in the Sacramentary for example.

The books complement each other. The Sacramentary says that the Gospel is read “here” but one needs to actually read the Gospel from the Lectionary.

The problem here in this thread is that people feel that they can rely on non-authoritative books or other non-authoritative sources to make changes to the Mass which the Church has not approved. That’s the problem. The people who print missalettes or who offer suggestions for changes to the Mass in magazines or newsletters are not the ones who have any authority to make changes to the Mass. This causes no end of confusion among Catholics. Many Catholics feel for example, that if a variation of the Lamb of God is printed in the Missalette, that means that it has been approved for use in the Mass. That’s simply not the case. The same holds true for ritual actions in the Mass. If it hasn’t been approved by the Church (and ultimately that means it needs the approval of the Holy See), or the Holy See has not specifically approved that something different may be said or done in a particular place, then doing so is never acceptable.

Just because something is commercially available, doesn’t mean that we can trust it. Take an example from the secular world. A person might buy a book on tax preparation. That book might offer some information which is not in harmony with the tax code. Such a person would not present the book to the IRS and say, in effect, this is the book that defines how I do my taxes, and I am at liberty to ignore the tax code because of it. You know what would happen in such a case. That’s what is happening with the Mass.

The real question here is “where is the second Alleluia described?” Omitting it from the Sacramentary or Lectionary would be a very unusaul thing for the Church to do if it is indeed approved. Perhaps it’s in the Pontifical because it applies only to a Mass celebrated by the bishop. I don’t know. But what I do know is that if such a thing were indeed allowed in a Mass celebrated by a parish priest, it’s safe to say that it would be included in the Sacramentary, GIRM, or Lectionary.

Excellent explanation. Thanks Father.

 

[benedictgal]

Just another twist to this. For whatever reason at our church they ceased doing the double alleluia during Advent only to return to it in Ordinary time. I have spoke to our Deacon who is on the liturgical committee and he refer to something about singing while returning the book. I’m not sue where the book is suppose to go.

One reason why the double Alleluia is not used during Advent, at least as far as I can tell, is because of the penitential nature of the season. Things are subdued. Remember, we don’t have the Gloria.

Now, the double Alleluia could come into play for the Solemnity of the Immaculate Conception and, in Hispanic parishes, during the Feast of Our Lady of Guadalupe.

As far as the issue of the use of the double Alleluia is concerned, I do believe that Music Man has a point. It could very well be found in the Roman Pontifical and the Ceremonial for Bishops.

Next time I am at the Cathedral, I will take a peek at the Ceremonial. That might help settle things (I hope).

 

[dcnpaul]

The Alleluia is sung in every season other than Lent. The verses are taken from the Lectionary or the Graduale.

The USCCB states in the document from the Committee on Divine Worship / Order of Mass / Chapter II
The Structure of the Mass, Its Elements and Its Parts
I. The General Structure of the Mass

1. After the reading that immediately precedes the Gospel, the Alleluia or another chant indicated by the rubrics is sung, as required by the liturgical season. An acclamation of this kind constitutes a rite or act in itself, by which the assembly of the faithful welcomes and greets the Lord who is about to speak to them in the Gospel and professes their faith by means of the chant. It is sung by all while standing and is led by the choir or a cantor, being repeated if this is appropriate. The verse, however, is sung either by the choir or by the cantor.

I found nothing concerning the Alleluias on both sides of the Gospel.

 

[FrDavid96]

…

I found nothing concerning the Alleluias on both sides of the Gospel.

Apparently, since this thread has been here for nearly 3 months, neither has anyone else.

 

[Andrew_Odom]

On a related note, since I can’t seem to find anything on this subject, I’ve always assumed that only the priest (or perhaps the deacon, if he’s doing the homily?) may say or sing the "alleluia. "

In a major U.S. city’s oldest cathedral, for the daily 12:05 pm Mass, the lay person who had just done the first reading , often stays around to do the “alleluia” - singing it, then speaking the line, then singing again (the double, I guess) before the 70-something but still spry priest comes up for the gospel.

Im not used to this and thought I heard a visitor say something about it quietly to their companion.

 

[FatHead]

On a related note, since I can’t seem to find anything on this subject, I’ve always assumed that only the priest (or perhaps the deacon, if he’s doing the homily?) may say or sing the "alleluia. "

In a major U.S. city’s oldest cathedral, for the daily 12:05 pm Mass, the lay person who had just done the first reading , often stays around to do the “alleluia” - singing it, then speaking the line, then singing again (the double, I guess) before the 70-something but still spry priest comes up for the gospel.

Im not used to this and thought I heard a visitor say something about it quietly to their companion.

three things:

1. this thread is 2 years old
2. theres nothing wrong with the lector singing the alleluia and verse. i do it all the time]
3. its not allowed to have the alleluia sung again after the gospel, except possibly during bishops masses but even then it might not be

 

[ConstantineTG]

1. its not allowed to have the alleluia sung again after the gospel, except possibly during bishops masses but even then it might not be

I’m curious to know where does it say this? I mean I agree its not appropriate to do so immediately after the Gospel has been read. But in the Byzantine Rite the Alleluia is sung again before Communion. Its appropriate because it shows a balance of ritual where the Alleluia is sung before we receive the Word of God, then sung again before we receive the Body and Blood of Christ. I’m curious if there’s anything particular in the Latin Rite that forbids such practice.

 

[The_Rock]

What has not been mentioned in this thread is that the singing of this 2nd Alleluia after the Gospel is often done in parishes instead of the response “Praise to you Lord Jesus Christ”. This was instituted at our parish many years ago by a liturgist who did not like calling Jesus “Lord”. I presume because “Lord” is not gender neutral or perhaps because the term denotes a subservient role. After all, saying “Lord” would emphasize a vertical rather than a horizontal relationship between God and us.

 

[FatHead]

I’m curious to know where does it say this? I mean I agree its not appropriate to do so immediately after the Gospel has been read. But in the Byzantine Rite the Alleluia is sung again before Communion. Its appropriate because it shows a balance of ritual where the Alleluia is sung before we receive the Word of God, then sung again before we receive the Body and Blood of Christ. I’m curious if there’s anything particular in the Latin Rite that forbids such practice.

but this isnt the byzantine rite were talking about the roman rite

actually an alleluia could be sung in place of the communion chant if you really wanted under the provision aptus allius cantus

 

[centurionguard]

I don’t particularly like the periods of silence. In fact, I strongly dislike the practice. In my opinion, the Eastern Churches have it right on this. The earthly Divine Liturgy is a participation in the Heavenly Divine Liturgy, whereby we join and are joined by the angels and saints in worshiping God. If the angels are never silent, why then would we be?

Now that I got that out, the period of silence after the Gospel in the Latin Mass (OF) is not only permitted, it’s strongly encouraged. And I don’t see that changing anytime soon.

Hello Father;
I’ve (“never”) seen the Alleluia sung after the Gospel. And really how much reflective silence should there be after the Gospel is read before the Priest or Deacon goes into the Homily. I like the idea that some priest will take a moment of silence before the Gospel is read and incense the Word of God as a symbol of reverence using the thurible. If any reflective silence that is immediately needed after the Gospel it should be the full discretion of the parish priest.

As some have already implied this practice must be Eastern Rite\Latin Rite.

Respectfully
Chris