Is it objectively meaningful and functionally correct to class Same Sex Attraction as a genuine form of human Sexuality?
Same Sex attraction exists as a form of human behaviour, and its very existence means it is a genuine form of human nature. However, the notion of objectivity when ascribed to a concept usually means that the behaviour can be observed as something mind independent. Considering how SSA has been observed down through the annals of recorded history, that it exists as an identifiable human behaviour means that, yes, objectively, it is a form of human behaviour. That, however, does not touch on the ‘normalcy’ of that behaviour. Nor does it touch on the ‘truthfullness’ of the stated fact, as the empricists often demand of objectivity. The ‘truthfullness’, or the ‘rightness’ and ‘wrongness’ of SSA because of its accepted objective existence, is meaningless. That requires a whole other debate, which others here have launched straight into.
When we consider that human behaviours like mass murder and paedophilia also have existed down through recorded history, we can objectively state that such behaviours exist. Again, however, the objectivity of the behaviour says nothing about its normalcy.
To arrive at conclusions about its percieved ‘normalcy’, we then need to introduce the concept of universality. In just about all the studies one can find and analyse, as a percentage of any given population, SSA seems to have a fixed figure, quite small. Thus its universality is questionable.
It is interesting that you have brought into the debate questions pertaining to objectivity, when the proponents of SSA and homosexuality seem to bend over backwards to deny the existence of objectivity!