Maybe this is one better for the ask the Apologist, but as I understand, the sin of being “not open to children” is if they practice artificial forms of birth control. Marrying an infertile person, even if that was a quality you liked, does not constitute artificial birth control. So how can that be sinful?
Of course marrying a person who *happens *to be infertile does not constitute being “not open to children.”
Seeking out and marrying a person
because he or she is infertile
does seem to constitute being “not open to children.”
I am under the impression that if a couple goes to a priest to be married, he asks them whether they are fertile. If one of them is known to be infertile before the wedding, they can’t be married in the Catholic Church.
No, I know for a fact that that’s not true. If you want to make sure, take the question over to the Ask an Apologist forum, but I already know what they’ll say.
I don’t know. But I have heard of people with war injuries, etc., being denied the Sacrament of Marriage in the Church.
In the examples to which you refer, that person was probably denied the Sacrament of Matrimony because he was
impotent, not because he was infertile.
Impotence is the inability
to engage in sexual intercourse at all, and
is - if perpetual and irreversible - an impediment to marriage in the Catholic Church.
Sterility/infertility, in which you can have sex but just cannot conceive children, is
not an impediment.
I am sure about this.
I don’t think that’s correct either. Not automatically anyway. I believe a marriage can be valid apart from consummation, like Mary and Joseph. I skimmed over Canon Law on marriage, and saw stuff like: Canon 109.1 Affinity arises from a valid marriage, even if not consummated, and it exists between the man and the blood relations of the woman, and likewise between the woman and the blood relations of the man.But I’m no expert either! I’d still like to know if the Church would marry anyone who is capable of relations, but sterile. I tend to say yes, because the marriage would still be open to life if God so willed.
Yeah - the Church considers a marriage valid once the vows are exchanged. We’re just supposed to assume that the marriage will be consummated.
And with regard to impotence, it
is true that the Church presumes that a person is able to have intercourse if they say so. The burden of proof is
never on the man to prove he is not impotent; the default is to accept that he can have intercourse.
I don’t know the medical facts, but I would assume that truly irreversible impotence is very rare. In any case, as I said, the Church will never
presume that that is the case.
But if perpetual and irreversible impotence
is established, then that does unfortunately constitute an impediment to marriage. Go ahead and check this in the Ask an Apologist forum if you’re unsure.
