T
Tomdstone
Guest
Are you sure? Adam and Eve were not fallen, and yet they still committed a mortal sin of disobedience by eating a forbidden apple.… the inclination to sin is found only in broken or fallen men. …
Are you sure? Adam and Eve were not fallen, and yet they still committed a mortal sin of disobedience by eating a forbidden apple.… the inclination to sin is found only in broken or fallen men. …
Philosophy, being the love of wisdom, encompasses all subjects.We were talking philosophy, not math.![]()
That would be because it is qualitatively better to be a free moral agent than an automaton, a jellyfish, an amoeba, a chunk of rock or the apple that got eaten, I suppose.Are you sure? Adam and Eve were not fallen, and yet they still committed a mortal sin of disobedience by eating a forbidden apple.
It does indeed, because mathematics is a form of logic, and logic belongs to philosophy, not to science. But then science also belongs to philosophy because you cannot do science without logic.Philosophy, being the love of wisdom, encompasses all subjects.
Word problems were a bit difficult for me, but how about:. . . How do you express the Golden Rule as a mathematical equation? . . .
Word problems were a bit difficult for me, but how about:
x = y
m(x+n) = m(y+n)
It doesn’t have the same ring to it, does it.
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You just need an authoritative voice reading it in KJV styled language.Word problems were a bit difficult for me, but how about:
x = y
m(x+n) = m(y+n)
It doesn’t have the same ring to it, does it.
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So you do deny that Jesus ascended into heaven and sits at the right Hand of the Father as stated in the Creed?
Would I deny that this passage implies Jesu set up a water station at the Feast of Tabernacles and was providling * his listeners with water merely because he said “…come to me and drink?” Yes.Jesus stood up and proclaimed, "If any one thirst, let him come to me and drink.
He who believes in me, as the Scripture has said, ‘Out of his heart shall flow rivers of living water.’ " (John 7:37-8)
Would I deny that this passage implies Jesu set up a water station at the Feast of Tabernacles and was providling * his listeners with water merely because he said “…come to me and drink?” Yes.
Do I deny that those who believe in Jesu will have water gushing out of their hearts like a fountain? Yep, again.
What Jesu said in both instances is true, but only true in an allegorical or analogical, not literal, sense. The question is “What is that ‘true’ sense in which his words were intended?”
Ditto for “ascended into Heaven” and “sits at the right hand of the Father.” In what sense are these true, if NOT literally?*
Some Biblical statements are to be taken metaphorically, while others are to be taken literally. This is what leads some atheists to deny the authority of Scripture. For one thing, the atheist may not agree on which passages are metaphors and which are literal. Take for example, Matthew 16:18, which Catholics say supports their position that the Pope is the Supreme Head of the Church. But a non-Catholic might say that this passage is to be taken allegorically. And then the Catholic responds that the Church is the authority to interpret Scripture. However, does that not involve a vicious circular argument with the Church asserting that this passage of Scripture gives the Church the authority to interpret Scripture and determine what is metaphorically true?
In everything, one sees what one knows.Some Biblical statements are to be taken metaphorically, while others are to be taken literally. This is what leads some atheists to deny the authority of Scripture. For one thing, the atheist may not agree on which passages are metaphors and which are literal. . . . does that not involve a vicious circular argument with the Church asserting that this passage of Scripture gives the Church the authority to interpret Scripture and determine what is metaphorically true?
There is no vicious circle here. I don’t know why you see one.Take for example, Matthew 16:18, which Catholics say supports their position that the Pope is the Supreme Head of the Church. But a non-Catholic might say that this passage is to be taken allegorically. And then the Catholic responds that the Church is the authority to interpret Scripture. However, does that not involve a vicious circular argument with the Church asserting that this passage of Scripture gives the Church the authority to interpret Scripture and determine what is metaphorically true?
The reason there is no vicious circle is because the Church does NOT assert that it is “this passage” gives the Church authority. What the Church asserts is that Jesus Christ gave the Church authority through Peter and apostolic succession. In other words, Jesus bestowed authority on his twelve closest followers by imparting upon them the Holy Spirit to a special degree. The Church is a living corpus of believers beginning with the initial twelve. This is the reason Jesus bothered to form them for three years to get them ready to fulfill the mission he had designated for them - to “build his Church.”And then the Catholic responds that the Church is the authority to interpret Scripture. However, does that not involve a vicious circular argument with the Church asserting that this passage of Scripture gives the Church the authority to interpret Scripture and determine what is metaphorically true?
Interestingly - and coincidentally - today’s first reading was a passage from Isaiah:Some Biblical statements are to be taken metaphorically, while others are to be taken literally. This is what leads some atheists to deny the authority of Scripture. For one thing, the atheist may not agree on which passages are metaphors and which are literal. Take for example, Matthew 16:18, which Catholics say supports their position that the Pope is the Supreme Head of the Church. But a non-Catholic might say that this passage is to be taken allegorically. And then the Catholic responds that the Church is the authority to interpret Scripture. However, does that not involve a vicious circular argument with the Church asserting that this passage of Scripture gives the Church the authority to interpret Scripture and determine what is metaphorically true?
Not only does this pertain to our discussion of how the word “high” ought to be interpreted in Scripture, but it also puts to rest your inclination to use the “atheist” as the arbiter for truth.…let the wicked forsake their way,
and the unrighteous their thoughts;
let them return to the Lord, that he may have mercy on them,
and to our God, for he will abundantly pardon.
For my thoughts are not your thoughts,
nor are your ways my ways, says the Lord.
For as the heavens are higher than the earth,
so are my ways higher than your ways
and my thoughts than your thoughts. (Isaiah 55:7-9)
This began when you linked a highly technical paper, apparently in support of a claim that words in the bible don’t have their obvious and usual meaning, but are a sophisticated code which only a tiny elect have the magnificent intellect to decipher.Humble is not the opposite of intelligent. It is possible for children (and adults, too) to be very intelligent and, yet, humble.
God is simple, but at the same time profoundly incomprehensible. If he didn’t positively want us to use intelligence, he would not have made reality intellectually challenging, but at the same time intelligence is only valuable as an aspect of wisdom - a means, though not the only means, to an end.
When you go to sleep, you’re visiting the Land of Nod, just to the east of EdenWhen I “go” to sleep, I am not travelling anywhere. Where I go in prayer has no physical dimensions.
I can’t say I understand St. Thomas Aquinas that well.
What I do understand is that my body and soul are a unity and that when my body dies I will lose connection with the the spatial and temporal aspects of the physical world in which I now participate.
How I understand God’s being in and beyond time and space is related to what I intuit of my being both transient and eternal in nature.
It is a mystery which thoughts that rely on the mundane will not grasp.
First, you tell me what you think I’m claiming and then I’ll tell you whether that IS what I am claiming.This began when you linked a highly technical paper, apparently in support of a claim that words in the bible don’t have their obvious and usual meaning, but are a sophisticated code which only a tiny elect have the magnificent intellect to decipher.
Please tell me that’s not what you’re claiming.
The hearers are the ones who listen and either get it or don’t, but the doers are the ones who follow through, whether they fully grasp the intricacies or not.For it is not the hearers of the law who are righteous in God’s sight, but the doers of the law who will be justified. (Romans 2:13)
Yet among the mature we do speak wisdom, though it is not a wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are doomed to perish. But we speak God’s wisdom, secret and hidden, which God decreed before the ages for our glory. None of the rulers of this age understood this; for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory. But, as it is written,
“What no eye has seen, nor ear heard,
nor the human heart conceived,
what God has prepared for those who love him”—
these things God has revealed to us through the Spirit; for the Spirit searches everything, even the depths of God. For what human being knows what is truly human except the human spirit that is within? So also no one comprehends what is truly God’s except the Spirit of God. Now we have received not the spirit of the world, but the Spirit that is from God, so that we may understand the gifts bestowed on us by God. And we speak of these things in words not taught by human wisdom but taught by the Spirit, interpreting spiritual things to those who are spiritual.
Those who are unspiritual do not receive the gifts of God’s Spirit, for they are foolishness to them, and they are unable to understand them because they are spiritually discerned. Those who are spiritual discern all things, and they are themselves subject to no one else’s scrutiny.
But we have the mind of Christ.Code:"For who has known the mind of the Lord so as to instruct him?”
(1 Cor 2:6-16)
I like Pre-Raphaelite art, which is chock full of symbolism, so I full-well understand allegory and metaphor.The point you may be missing is that where the soul goes (you claim “in space”) and waits (you claim “in time”) may be not literal (univocal) terms but analogical terms.
In the same sense that the word “see” might be used both to describe what I do when I experience a sunset as when I grasp a concept. “I see what you mean,” has its own meaning - to apprehend with one’s mind that is a manner of “seeing” similar to, but not exactly the same as perceiving with eyes is a manner of “seeing.” They need not be identical kinds of “seeing” to both be meaningful ways of “seeing.”
Merely because the use of “goes” and “awaits” are not intended to have literal physical implications does not make the ideas behind them incomprehensible - except, perhaps, to fundamentalists who can’t get past concrete or literalistic world views.
Surely, if I say, “You can’t be blind to this possibility?” you aren’t compelled to take that I mean to imply you are physically blind, do you?
Likewise, the authors of the soul “going to meet God” and “awaiting a resurrected body” aren’t doing anything more complicated or obtuse than my asking why you can’t “see” my meaning. The question to be asked is: Why are you insisting that their using words in that way is so confusing to you when we do it all the time in normal conversation? CS Lewis has a brilliant expose of literalism in one of his books - Mere Christianity, I think.
In the case of the soul “going” somewhere, a physical location need not be implied if the idea is intended as an analog of traveling. “Awaiting” need not mean “in time” except to convey the idea of suspension from time.
Again, Feser offers an instructive lesson in how we need NOT be committed to taking things literally in order to affirm the truth of things.
You just need an authoritative voice reading it in KJV styled language.
Do ye unto x as ye would have done unto y.
The logical foundations of modern knowledge are to be found in Greek philosophy:I’m not sure that curiosity and finger painting equals knowledge.
Aristotle: Metaphysics classics.mit.edu/Aristotle/metaphysics.1.i.html** For it is owing to their wonder that men both now begin and at first began to philosophize**; they wondered originally at the obvious difficulties, then advanced little by little and stated difficulties about the greater matters, e.g. about the phenomena of the moon and those of the sun and of the stars, and about the genesis of the universe. And a man who is puzzled and wonders thinks himself ignorant (whence even the lover of myth is in a sense a lover of Wisdom, for the myth is composed of wonders); therefore since they philosophized in order to escape from ignorance, evidently they were pursuing science in order to know, and not for any utilitarian end. And this is confirmed by the facts; for it was when almost all the necessities of life and the things that make for comfort and recreation had been secured, that such knowledge began to be sought. Evidently then we do not seek it for the sake of any other advantage; but as the man is free, we say, who exists for his own sake and not for another’s, so we pursue this as the only free science, for it alone exists for its own sake.
Depending on how tiny an elect you are talking about, I may qualify as having a magnificent intellect;. . . words in the bible don’t have their obvious and usual meaning, but are a sophisticated code which only a tiny elect have the magnificent intellect to decipher. Please tell me that’s not what you’re claiming.