Is Jesus God?

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I did not disagree with the Pope. The NAB contained a Letter of Pope Paul VI not an imprimatur. He never claimed the transaltion and notes were 100% perfect, no translation is.
I thought the whole point of the Imprimatur and Nihil Obstat was that it was to document that there were no doctrinal errors.
 
I thought the whole point of the Imprimatur and Nihil Obstat was that it was to document that there were no doctrinal errors.
In matters of faith and moral yes.

Ben made specific reference to Petrine authorship. The Church says Peter’s epistles are the inspired word of God, the NAB does not contradict this.

The Church allows scholars to put forward opinions, provided they don’t contradict doctrine. While the consensus seems to be that St Peter wrote the episltes (do we know who wrote every book of the Old Testament?), to my knowedge the human authorship of the books of scripture has not been dogmatically defined by the Church.

**FROM THE NAB: **From Irenaeus in the late second century until modern times, Christian tradition regarded Peter the apostle as author of this document. Since he was martyred at Rome during the persecution of Nero between A.D. 64 and 67, it was supposed that the letter was written from Rome shortly before his death. This is supported by its reference to “Babylon” (1Pe 5:13), a code name for Rome in the early church…Some modern scholars, however, on the basis of a number of features that they consider incompatible with Petrine authenticity, regard the letter as the work of a later Christian writer…Other scholars believe, however, that these objections can be met by appeal…Still other scholars take a middle position…author would be a disciple of Peter in Rome…
 
Just in regards to the original question; please read the below letter of St Ignatius to the Romans. St Ignatius was a student of St John the beloved Gospel writer.

St. Ignatius of Antioch, Letter to the Romans Address (c. 110 AD)
“Ignatius, also called Theophorus, to the Church that has found mercy in
the greatness of the Most High Father and in Jesus Christ, His only Son: to
the Church beloved and enlightened after the love of Jesus Christ, our God,
by the will of Him that has willed everything which is: to the Church also
which holds the presidency in the place of the country of the Romans … To
those who are united in flesh and in spirit by every commandment of His,
who are filled with the grace of God without wavering, and who are filtered
clear of every foreign stain, I wish an unalloyed joy in Jesus Christ, our
God
.”

God bless
 
It is really an interpretation of some in Christendom that God himself became flesh. No bible writer teaches this. Some believe this because of a scribal change to 1Ti 3:16, but Catholic bibles don’t have this defect, like the KJV that has God where the word he is found below.

NJB 1 Timothy 3:16 Without any doubt, the mystery of our religion is very deep indeed: **He **was made visible in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen by angels, proclaimed to the gentiles, believed in throughout the world, taken up in glory.

Another place where some appeal is **John 1:14 **where it was the Word who was made flesh and not God himself. Because of their interpretation that the Word is identified as God as opposed to having divinity predicated upon him they view this as God himself becoming flesh. That is an interpretation and not something bible writers explicit teach.

The only place I can think of where Paul might be said to be responsible for this teaching is Col 2:9. However bibles like the NAB correctly show that the word SWMATIKOS is an adverb and not a noun as in some renderings where they use the term “bodily form”.
NAB Colossians 2:9 For in him dwells the whole fullness of the deity bodily,

This could mean plenty of things, none of which are that God himself dwells in a human body.
Well, that’s a rendering for the better. Not the ideal but still…not too bad.
 
Where does it say the Jews did not come to him to learn the word of God through the Messiah? Give me your source Ben. It appears you still believe you know more about Christianity than Christians do. Get to the point or get off the game playing.
**You tell me! You are the Catholic one answering our questions. **
 
Yada, yada, yada…

Why is this thread continuing?

I’ll tell you what Ben. Why don’t you just rewrite the New Testament and tell us what’s in it and what’s not. Then we’ll go from there.

Besides, I need a good laugh! 😉
**Great! At least, I have made your day. What did you expect? Do you think it would be easy to evangelize the Jews with Hellenistic writings? We are a little more complex than you think. **
 
theos nv o logos because if your god doesnt love you enough to become human and suffer like you then why would you want any part of that? Jesus is the name of the living God no one can say jesus is jehova except by the holy spirit
 
theos nv o logos because if your god doesnt love you enough to become human and suffer like you then why would you want any part of that? Jesus is the name of the living God no one can say jesus is jehova except by the holy spirit
You are totally mistaken to say that God does not love us. Does one love the pupil of his eye? That’s what we are to God. The point here is that you guys think God has to do something just because you have dictated that’s what He did or should do.
 
**Great! At least, I have made your day. What did you expect? Do you think it would be easy to evangelize the Jews with Hellenistic writings? We are a little more complex than you think. **
And yet, millions of you guys converted. Heck, you guys even started our religion!

But alas, Ben, as the saying goes, “You can fool some of the people some of the time…”
 
And yet, millions of you guys converted. Heck, you guys even started our religion!

But alas, Ben, as the saying goes, “You can fool some of the people some of the time…”
That’s the problem with Jews: Always trying to do something for the Gentiles and having them biting the hand that feeds them in return.
 
I thought the whole point of the Imprimatur and Nihil Obstat was that it was to document that there were no doctrinal errors.
The purpose of it is to confirm it is not adverse to the doctrines of the faith, not to attest to its accuracy in its subject.

The procedure works like this: when a Catholic writes a book on faith, morals, theology, liturgy, books on prayer, editions of Sacred Scripture, etc., he will submit his manuscript to his diocese’s Censor. If the Censor finds no problem with it, he will give it his stamp, which reads “Nihil Obstat,” or “nothing stands in the way.” He then sends it to the Bishop for his review. If the Bishop finds nothing objectionable, he gives the book his “Imprimatur” which means, “let it be printed.”

If the Catholic writing the book is a member of a religious order, the manuscript is first sent to his religious superior before it is sent to the Censor and Bishop. If the religious superior finds no impediment to publication, he will give the book his stamp of “Imprimi Potest,” which means “it can be printed.”

Nowadays, after the Imprimatur, you might see these words:
The “Nihil Obstat” and “Imprimatur” are official declarations that a book or pamphlet is free of doctrinal or moral error. No implication is contained therein that those who have granted the Nihil Obstat and the Imprimatur agree with the content, opinions or statements expressed. fisheaters.com/imprimatur.html
 
**You tell me! You are the Catholic one answering our questions. **
I’m telling you that no where in the Old Testament or in the New Testament is there any evidence of any Jew being forced to attend the teachings of Christ. And I am telling you there are many instances in scripture that tell us many Jews came to Jesus and to His apostles to hear, learn and convert to the teachings and life Christ calls us to. I am not trying to offend you but you on the other hand have a fixation that Paul established the Faith Jesus in fact founded and although I understand many Jews now days are centered on that, it is irritating when you waste so much time on something that is false to begin with.

If you are so determined to prove Paul is the be all and end all of the establishment of the Christian Faith, respond to the scripture verses I presented you and show me how Christ did not found His Church. If that is not your position, lets move on to something with a bit more substance.
 
theos logos
the god the word same sentence, number, case, gender. john 1:1
 
theos logos
the god the word same sentence, number, case, gender. john 1:1
RESPONSE:

First of all, this is John’s gospel dating from 95 to 110 AD. It was written AFTER the idea that Jesus himself was divine developed (c 85 AD).

And a more correct translation would be:
“In the beginning was the Logos and the Logos was with God, and the Logos was a god. He was in the beginning with God.”

This is essentially what we see in Paul’s “the firstborn of all creation.” It’s a concept of the Logos taken from Greek cosmology.

From the Wikipedia:
"Philo (20 BC - 50 AD), a Hellenized Jew, used the term** logos **to mean the creative principle. Philo followed the Platonic distinction between imperfect matter and perfect idea. The logos was necessary, he taught, because God cannot come into contact with matter…“The **Logos is the first-born **and the eldest and chief of the angels.”
 
well in my weak understanding of grammar nomininative singular is anything but A god
 
Sing: - os Plur: -oi
Decl II: Masculine nouons and male names. 'ippos 'ippoi ('innos)

sometimes os is genetive but that still doesnt go along with this context
 
and although wikipedia is easy, a more accurate interpretation os the logos in the platonic sense is "the knowlege that is above the gods:
 
RESPONSE:

First of all, this is John’s gospel dating from 95 to 110 AD. It was written AFTER the idea that Jesus himself was divine developed (c 85 AD).

And a more correct translation would be:
“In the beginning was the Logos and the Logos was with God, and the Logos was a god. He was in the beginning with God.”

This is essentially what we see in Paul’s “the firstborn of all creation.” It’s a concept of the Logos taken from Greek cosmology.

From the Wikipedia:
"Philo (20 BC - 50 AD), a Hellenized Jew, used the term** logos **to mean the creative principle. Philo followed the Platonic distinction between imperfect matter and perfect idea. The logos was necessary, he taught, because God cannot come into contact with matter…“The **Logos is the first-born **and the eldest and chief of the angels.”
So many interpretations yet for almost 2000 years true scholars in their respective fields (mulitiple fields of study) have determined the proper interpretations.

**John CH1; 1 εν αρχη ην ο λογος και ο λογος ην προς τον θεον και **θεος ην ο λογος

θεὸς = “was God” as contained in the true text.

"like a god" as used by the NWT would have required the original Greek text to contain - “σαν ένα” = “like a”


**Where does the print “σαν ένα” or an similarity show up in the above Greek text to support it’s addition. **

Latin Vulgate John CH1:1 in principio erat Verbum et Verbum erat apud Deum et Deus erat Verbum

Latin vulgate 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

 
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