But that wasn’t the fulfillment of the birth of a true “Immanuel”. The Greek translation correctly understood that the Child Immanuel would be born of a virgin. That Child was called “Immanuel”, the fulfillment of the prophecy of Isaiah.
Dan:
The word can mean virgin and it can mean a “young woman” as rendered by the Catholic New Jerusalem Bible.
NJB Isaiah 7:14 The Lord will give you a sign in any case: It is this: the
young woman is with child and will give birth to a son whom she will call Immanuel.
The fact remains that Immanuel was born to a young woman in Isaiah’s day as a sign that God was with them and he was not God himself. That argument is refuted.
NotWorthy
But this wasn’t possible was it, until the God-Man became incarnate. The best that could be expected before that was to “walk with God”.
Dan:
That is irrelevant (if indeed it is true, which is also not relevant, because) the fact is that since Christians are ijn God and they in him, this is not proof that Jesus is God.
NotWorthy
And there are some, like Theophilus, who are wrong.

The early Church, correctly interpreted this, and even put down the heresy that Jesus wasn’t God.
Dan:
What happened to the belief that this was handed down to the early Church by the apostles, did no one tell Theophilus? Was not he part of the early Church? That group preserved his writings.
NotWorthy
No, it does not. I understand that Lord CAN mean master and what-not. But I ask you, look at Luke 1 and show me where any of those “Lords” do not mean “God”. There is only one that can be called “questionable” out of 15 or so - “And how is it that the Mother of my Lord should come to me”. Every other time, its apparent that “Lord” is referring to God. Go ahead and read Luke 1 and see if you agree.
Dan:
How can Jesus be Lord as in the one who is Lord from eternity if he was made Lord? Your argument is seriously deficient. Lord is used of both Father and Son. The Father made Jesus Lord. But don’t confuse the two or you will be a Sabellian, not a Catholic. You make Sabellian arguments.
NotWorthy
Now, knowing that Luke has a good grasp of the grammatical rules of Greek, it would behoove him to use a different word for “Lord” in the above sentence regarding Elizabeth, because its the only time in the infancy narratives that “Lord” did not mean “God”.
Dan:
Yes, Luke was good at Greek, and he wrote Acts where he said that God made Jesus Lord. So you are wrong.