A
AndrewW94
Guest
You seem to have dropped the “Aristotle was a Christian” straw man. Glad to see we made some progress.
The fact that my house is one thing is a reason why the usual formulation of the principle of non-contradiction is: “A and not A cannot both be true at the same time and in the same respect (way).”
As regards my claim that A → B is an inadequate way of symbolizing “A caused B”, see *A Companion to Philosophical Logic *pg. 30: “However, today we also make a clear distinction between implication, consequence, inference and causal grounding.” Or a much longer read (that’s probably over your head) is here sussex.ac.uk/Users/christay/Tayl93.pdf Last I checked, you can’t get a Ph.D. by writing that A causes B is adequately symbolized as A → B. Of course, that symbolization will work for some things, but you can’t just blindly substitute.
If / when you decide to make a serious study of symbolic logic, you will learn that when we translate a natural language sentence into symbolic form some meaning is usually lost. Translating it back to a natural language can help you to see this. If we take your symbolization, we would translate it into English as something like: “If God exists, then the Red Sea is parted.” (“is parted” being true whenever it is true that God exists–at all times (but not limited to that).) This is of course ridiculous. (For many reasons, not the least of which is that I claim God is eternal and the Red Sea is not.) If we are going to simplify causation to A → B, we wouldn’t say something silly like “God exists implies the Red Sea is parted.” I won’t pretend to know how God works, but imagine that we could say something like: “If God exists and Moses raised his staff over the Red Sea an odd number of times, then the Red Sea is parted.” This, while not perfect, is clearly superior to your phrasing. Thus your argument is baseless.
But now I want to challenge you. As I demonstrated before (post 67), Aristotle thought that God is immutable and that God is the Uncaused Cause. As you correctly pointed out, he lived in the 300’s B.C. That leaves us well over 2000 years between the time the Stagarite walked the earth and the present day. His writings were widely studied for most of this time. It seems that this gaping “contradiction” you discovered would have been noticed does it not? Could you point me to a few people of the many millions studying Aristotle who saw this contradiction? It would be best if they lived before 1500, as Aristotle has been widely misunderstood in modern times.
Wrong. My house is “one thing”. It has parts, but it also has unity. If this were not of the essence of “house” how would you distinguish between a roof next to four walls (that do not enclose a region) and some flooring plastered to the walls and a real house? Saying “I have a house” is not the same as saying “I have a roof, walls, and a floor, etc.”Your house is not one thing, it is a compound made of walls, roof, floor etc.
The fact that my house is one thing is a reason why the usual formulation of the principle of non-contradiction is: “A and not A cannot both be true at the same time and in the same respect (way).”
Note how you switch from sunshine is a cause to sunshine is a condition. This should be a hint to you that you are changing the meanings.Sunshine is a necessary, but not sufficient, condition for tree growth. In effect you are taking my simple A → B, expanding it into (A’ + X) → B and correctly pointing out that we can no longer rely on the simple A’ → B
As regards my claim that A → B is an inadequate way of symbolizing “A caused B”, see *A Companion to Philosophical Logic *pg. 30: “However, today we also make a clear distinction between implication, consequence, inference and causal grounding.” Or a much longer read (that’s probably over your head) is here sussex.ac.uk/Users/christay/Tayl93.pdf Last I checked, you can’t get a Ph.D. by writing that A causes B is adequately symbolized as A → B. Of course, that symbolization will work for some things, but you can’t just blindly substitute.
If / when you decide to make a serious study of symbolic logic, you will learn that when we translate a natural language sentence into symbolic form some meaning is usually lost. Translating it back to a natural language can help you to see this. If we take your symbolization, we would translate it into English as something like: “If God exists, then the Red Sea is parted.” (“is parted” being true whenever it is true that God exists–at all times (but not limited to that).) This is of course ridiculous. (For many reasons, not the least of which is that I claim God is eternal and the Red Sea is not.) If we are going to simplify causation to A → B, we wouldn’t say something silly like “God exists implies the Red Sea is parted.” I won’t pretend to know how God works, but imagine that we could say something like: “If God exists and Moses raised his staff over the Red Sea an odd number of times, then the Red Sea is parted.” This, while not perfect, is clearly superior to your phrasing. Thus your argument is baseless.
But now I want to challenge you. As I demonstrated before (post 67), Aristotle thought that God is immutable and that God is the Uncaused Cause. As you correctly pointed out, he lived in the 300’s B.C. That leaves us well over 2000 years between the time the Stagarite walked the earth and the present day. His writings were widely studied for most of this time. It seems that this gaping “contradiction” you discovered would have been noticed does it not? Could you point me to a few people of the many millions studying Aristotle who saw this contradiction? It would be best if they lived before 1500, as Aristotle has been widely misunderstood in modern times.