Ok this is the wonderful post from the middle of page 18. I looked it up. What a waste.
It was the first half of that message #263 that was more relevant. Starting with "Where the argument of “continuing revelation” ending is circular (as a “proof” of apostasy) is that first you must establish that “continuing revelation” occurs, was meant to occur after Christ, and means (is defined as) what you think it means. Fact is, I have seen no other non-Smithian groups that agree with any of those three points as Smithians believe them. It is a Smithian innovation backed up in only in Smithian works–which, if they must rely on themselves to demonstrate it, rely on circular reasoning.
I call it circular because you cannot presume those three premises about “continuing revelation” and use them as evidence for any sort of apostasy. You must first prove your premises."
You don’t even provide the references to the NT that revelation will end.
First, I don’t need to, because your own assertion of continuing revelation is incorrect and so far unsupported.
Second, I gave at least one reference, though I did not quote the verse: John 14:26 “But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.” “Remembrance” is a past tense reference. It is done.
Third, I have you the logical arguments from the reality of the Incarnation and the Divine Institution of the Church as Christ’s Body, ensouled with the Holy Spirit, that means that God has revealed Himself to us fully, and that we have all the guide we need unto Salvation.
Fourth, I explained there, in opposition to the idea expressed by you or Dianaiad that “continuing revelation” was needed to teach, how everything can be taught that was already revealed.
Fifth, we have talked about how revelation is properly defined, and the difference between public and private revelation.
Your response contained no argument against any of these.
Then you say that your pope is better than our prophet because you call your revelations “encyclicals”.
No. I compared and contrasted the two. I made an observation about how the pope is often vilified for the “arrogance” of infallibility, while the LDS “prophet” claims more. I also tried to explain how the process through which the Holy Spirit guides and protects truth within the Church (through the gift of infallibility where it applies), as well as the continuing teaching authority of the Church, should satisfy this need the LDS observe for Spirit-guided teaching.
That is what it comes down to, is it not? You want God’s continued guidance in the Church, recognize that it is necessary? Well, the Catholic Church recognizes that as well, and contains that gift.
You have contradicted yourself by saying “there is no revelation, but our encyclicals are”.
That’s not what I was saying, though if I didn’t explain it well, I’m sorry.
I think we are using two different senses of “revelation.” You should know what I’m going off of, since the Catholic definitions have been posted. I still am not entirely sure what you’re using, since you’ve applied several different senses of the world.
In the sense that you seem to primarily be using “revelation,” as inerrant guidance of the Spirit, then yes, the Church exercises that form of revelation.
It’s Spirit-led and confirmed guidance that the Church exercises and experiences. Thus God still speaks to and through His Church.
What is different is that our God keeps no secrets, but has revealed Himself to us fully through Christ and the Holy Spirit. The glorious truth is that He has already come down to our level and holds nothing back. He still guides and leads, as well, through the Church.
How can that reality somehow not satisfy you? It is far greater than the idea that God is secretive and distant, that He occasionally tosses scraps of truth to some specific man, scraps that we need but that He’s been holding back. No, the Smithian sects show their gnostic origins with this idea of secret knowledge, and this model of revelation denies the intended universality of Christ’s Church and his saving act. It makes little of Christ’s sacrifice to say that he did not finish his work, but that more needs to be revealed yet for us to have salvation.
If that doesn’t sound like what you believe, please clarify, and please define “revelation” and its types and purposes. If you believe that all that is needed for Salvation has been revealed, then I wonder what we’re arguing about.