It doesn’t mean there is something wrong with it. If something is true and you cannot prove that it isn’t true doesn’t mean there is something wrong with it. It can mean that you’ve just found something that is actually true.
True things can be falsifiable, too. If something is true, obviously it can’t be proven false, but if we can conceive of hypothetical scenarios that would, were they not hypothetical, prove it false, then it is falsifiable. For example, the claim “It didn’t rain yesterday,” is true (at least where I am) and falsifiable, because I can conceive of a way to prove it false: I can check yesterday’s weather, and if it says, “it rained yesterday,” then the claim is falsified. Just being able to conceive of a scenario where the claim is false is enough to render it falsifiable. It seems like you don’t think a scenario where papal infallibility is false is even conceivable, so your answer to the question is “no,” I think.
That’s possible: that a Pope doesn’t ask for the guidance of the Holy Spirit when declaring infallible dogma. It’s also possible that he always will. The only point here is that free will and protection from error by the Holy Spirit doesn’t necessarily compromise the Pontiff’s free will. So it seems that issue is resolved.
That’s fine; if I got that right, dshix already said that the following two statements are only seemingly contradictory, and it is only known as of this writing
that they are not contradictory, but not
how:
- The Holy Spirit makes 100% certain that no pope is ever elected who would declare it an infallible dogma that Mary was conceived with original sin.
- The Holy Spirit makes 100% certain that all electors are free to elect such a pope if they wish.
If you disagree, and believe you know
how they are not contradictory, please do tell.
Perhaps your reconciliation between 1 and 2 could be clearer to me if you discussed the following. Of these two arguments, which makes more sense to you? Is either sound? Do you disagree with any of the premises?
Modus ponens
If the pope has free will, then the pope is free to say that a falsehood is infallibly true.
The pope has free will.
Hence the pope is free to say that a falsehood is infallibly true.
Modus tollens
If the pope has free will, then the pope is free to say that a falsehood is infallibly true.
The pope is not free to say that a falsehood is infallibly true.
Hence the pope does not have free will.
Alternatively, and at the risk of long-windedness,
MP
If the cardinal electors have free will, then the cardinal electors are free to elect a pope who will say that a falsehood is infallibly true.
The cardinal electors have free will.
Hence the cardinal electors are free to elect a pope who will say that a falsehood is infallibly true.
MT
If the cardinal electors have free will, then the cardinal electors are free to elect a pope who will say that a falsehood is infallibly true.
The cardinal electors are not free to elect a pope who will say that a falsehood is infallibly true.
Hence the cardinal electors do not have free will.
In fact, the very fact that no pope has ever tried to refute the doctrinal claims of the Catholic Church is, I think, strong evidence that papal infallibility is true. No other institution in the world, religious or otherwise, has maintained such strong consistency in its core beliefs and directives.
So I have you down as “Yes, papal infallibility is falsifiable in theory, and the fact that it hasn’t been proven false even though the possibility exists is good evidence that it is in fact true,” right? I would ask you what your thoughts are about claims about bad popes like John XII, if indeed you believe any were bad. Do you think that through all of their sins and things, they never wanted to officially contradict any doctrine, or they were mystically barred from doing so?
I would also ask you whether you consider any doctrine on faith and morals infallible that was not explicitly
claimed to be infallible. From what I gather only two articles, both about Mary, are infallible. If that’s true, what explains this paucity of infallible declarations, since such strong consistency has been maintained anyway? If that’s false, forget it.