Is Papal Infallibility Falsifiable In Theory?

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Given the assumption that papal infallibility is unfalsifiable, does this make it untrue?
Of course not. It just means that even if papal infallibility were false, its falsehood could not be demonstrated (adapted from here). I’m leaning towards it is theoretically falsifiable because I can conceive of a pope declaring it an infallible dogma that Mary was born with original sin, but thoughtful people disagree.
 
Given the assumption that papal infallibility is unfalsifiable, does this make it untrue?
Its not an assumption. Its a fact. The concept of papal infallibility is expressed in such away that it is conveniently unfalsifiable. It can be a gift and a curse.
  1. It is convenient to someone who has faith if infallibility happens to be true, because no matter what they will never fall foul of theological corruption inflicted by corrupt human agendas.
  2. And it is also convenient for corrupt controlling men with political influence over the choices of lay Catholics if papal infallibility happens to be false and yet unfalsifiable.
This is the problem that makes people hesitate (and quite rightfully) when considering pal infallibility because on the one hand it could mean the preservation of divine moral truth, but on the other hand if it is not true it would mean that people are slaves to a lie affecting every area of their lives because they do not have the freedom to reason otherwise for fret of hell.

At the end of the day we are putting our reasoning aside for the assertion of infallibility and that is a vulnerable position to be in epistemologically speaking regardless of the benefits that necessarily follow if it is true.

It is not unreasonable that people fear the dogmatic assertion of such power because nobody wants to be deceived into any kind of slavery. Thus people would like to think that if something is found to be unreasonable in a papal document, they would have the rational and moral freedom to question it and reject it when it is found wanting without being psychologically blackmailed by the fret of hell.
 
Its not an assumption. Its a fact. The concept of papal infallibility is expressed in such away that it is conveniently unfalsifiable. It can be a gift and a curse.
David intended the word “assumption” in a sense meaning a technical term in logic. He wasn’t saying that papal infallibility was not a fact.
 


Maybe it wouldn’t happen in reality, but in theory is it at least conceivable that a pope or a cardinal would elect someone or declare something without asking the Holy Spirit what to do? If not, then your answer to this thread’s title question is “no,” I imagine.
No it isn’t possible in theory because by definition, even in theory, cardinals and popes are those men who follow the prompting of the spirit. Like doctors are those who practice medicine. Like catholics are not catholics because of the name but because of what they do or don’t do. An evil cardinal or pope would not actually be a catholic cardinal or pope and any evil dogmas would be ignored. But as it stands there are no evil Dogmas because all Dogma is sourced directly from the Scriptures. A new and evil Dogma, presumably, would not be contained in the Scriptures because they are the source of Dogma and nobody has any quibble with Scripture as far as I can see.

is papal infallibility falsifiable? who cares about falsifiability? If I cannot prove something is wrong then presumably that means there can never be anything wrong with it. That is another possibility.
 
Is papal infallibility falsifiable? who cares about falsifiability? If I cannot prove something is wrong then presumably that means there can never be anything wrong with it. That is another possibility.
Figuring out whether a claim is falsifiable or not can be very useful epistemologically. See Karl Popper.

Also, the inability to prove something wrong does not necessarily mean by any stretch that there can’t be something wrong with it. For example, the claim “there is an imperceptible ogre who lives under my bed” cannot be proven wrong, but that doesn’t mean there isn’t something wrong with it.
 
Figuring out whether a claim is falsifiable or not can be very useful epistemologically. See Karl Popper.

Also, the inability to prove something wrong does not necessarily mean by any stretch that there can’t be something wrong with it. For example, the claim “there is an imperceptible ogre who lives under my bed” cannot be proven wrong, but that doesn’t mean there isn’t something wrong with it.
It doesn’t mean there is something wrong with it. If something is true and you cannot prove that it isn’t true doesn’t mean there is something wrong with it. It can mean that you’ve just found something that is actually true.
 
Just a non-Catholic here with a question about infallibility. What hypothetical proposition would a pope have to say that would falsify the doctrine of papal infallibility? Would it be nothing short of this sort of thing: “I, Pope X, in the exercise of my office as shepherd and teacher of all Christians, in virtue of my supreme apostolic authority, define the doctrine to be held by the whole Church that (falsehood Y)?” I do not want to derail this conversation by inserting any specific falsehood into where I wrote (falsehood Y), but if it helps you answer the question, feel free to make up falsehoods to insert in its place.

Is papal infallibility not falsifiable after all, not even in theory? That is to say, would even a pope saying the above proposition not falsify his infallibility, and simply mean that (falsehood Y) is not actually a falsehood? There has to be a difference between the hypothetical scenario where papal infallibility exists and the one where it does not exist, hasn’t there? That difference is what I’m curious about. I would be grateful if you could dream up and post propositions which, by virtue of the fact that papal infallibility is an accurate component of reality, a pope could/would never actually say.
As I understand it, if the Pope specifically declared, as doctrine, that a previous doctrine was false, that would disprove papal infallibility. What it would not do would be to change church teaching.

In fact, the very fact that no pope has ever tried to refute the doctrinal claims of the Catholic Church is, I think, strong evidence that papal infallibility is true. No other institution in the world, religious or otherwise, has maintained such strong consistency in its core beliefs and directives.
 
Maybe it wouldn’t happen in reality, but in theory is it at least conceivable that a pope or a cardinal would elect someone or declare something without asking the Holy Spirit what to do? If not, then your answer to this thread’s title question is “no,” I imagine.
That’s possible: that a Pope doesn’t ask for the guidance of the Holy Spirit when declaring infallible dogma. It’s also possible that he always will. The only point here is that free will and protection from error by the Holy Spirit doesn’t necessarily compromise the Pontiff’s free will. So it seems that issue is resolved.
 
Its not an assumption. Its a fact. The concept of papal infallibility is expressed in such away that it is conveniently unfalsifiable.
This is incorrect. The claim of the CC is that all ex cathedra statements pertaining to faith and morals are true; yet this is just a claim. Assuming that moral statements containing normative content are falsifiable, any normative statement by the Pope ex cathedra is also falsifiable. If it can be known that “we ought not kill infants solely for personal pleasure,” then a contrary statement from the Pope is false.

Similarly, internal contradictions between one infallible claim of the CC and another at least prove that one of those propositions is false. There really isn’t a good argument for the theory that statements claimed by the Roman Pontiff to be infallible are also unfalsifiable. Well, unless you claim that all normative propositions are unfalsifiable. But then the problem is with normative (moral) statements in general, not the fact that the Pope makes such claims.
 
Similarly, internal contradictions between one infallible claim of the CC and another at least prove that one of those propositions is false.
There is much to answer in your post, but I choose to focus on this. Can you give a single example in which the Church has contradicted herself on matters of faith or morals (doctrine)?

Remember to distinguish between doctrine and discipline.
 
It doesn’t mean there is something wrong with it. If something is true and you cannot prove that it isn’t true doesn’t mean there is something wrong with it. It can mean that you’ve just found something that is actually true.
True things can be falsifiable, too. If something is true, obviously it can’t be proven false, but if we can conceive of hypothetical scenarios that would, were they not hypothetical, prove it false, then it is falsifiable. For example, the claim “It didn’t rain yesterday,” is true (at least where I am) and falsifiable, because I can conceive of a way to prove it false: I can check yesterday’s weather, and if it says, “it rained yesterday,” then the claim is falsified. Just being able to conceive of a scenario where the claim is false is enough to render it falsifiable. It seems like you don’t think a scenario where papal infallibility is false is even conceivable, so your answer to the question is “no,” I think.
That’s possible: that a Pope doesn’t ask for the guidance of the Holy Spirit when declaring infallible dogma. It’s also possible that he always will. The only point here is that free will and protection from error by the Holy Spirit doesn’t necessarily compromise the Pontiff’s free will. So it seems that issue is resolved.
That’s fine; if I got that right, dshix already said that the following two statements are only seemingly contradictory, and it is only known as of this writing that they are not contradictory, but not how:
  1. The Holy Spirit makes 100% certain that no pope is ever elected who would declare it an infallible dogma that Mary was conceived with original sin.
  2. The Holy Spirit makes 100% certain that all electors are free to elect such a pope if they wish.
If you disagree, and believe you know how they are not contradictory, please do tell.

Perhaps your reconciliation between 1 and 2 could be clearer to me if you discussed the following. Of these two arguments, which makes more sense to you? Is either sound? Do you disagree with any of the premises?

Modus ponens
If the pope has free will, then the pope is free to say that a falsehood is infallibly true.
The pope has free will.
Hence the pope is free to say that a falsehood is infallibly true.

Modus tollens
If the pope has free will, then the pope is free to say that a falsehood is infallibly true.
The pope is not free to say that a falsehood is infallibly true.
Hence the pope does not have free will.

Alternatively, and at the risk of long-windedness,

MP
If the cardinal electors have free will, then the cardinal electors are free to elect a pope who will say that a falsehood is infallibly true.
The cardinal electors have free will.
Hence the cardinal electors are free to elect a pope who will say that a falsehood is infallibly true.

MT
If the cardinal electors have free will, then the cardinal electors are free to elect a pope who will say that a falsehood is infallibly true.
The cardinal electors are not free to elect a pope who will say that a falsehood is infallibly true.
Hence the cardinal electors do not have free will.
In fact, the very fact that no pope has ever tried to refute the doctrinal claims of the Catholic Church is, I think, strong evidence that papal infallibility is true. No other institution in the world, religious or otherwise, has maintained such strong consistency in its core beliefs and directives.
So I have you down as “Yes, papal infallibility is falsifiable in theory, and the fact that it hasn’t been proven false even though the possibility exists is good evidence that it is in fact true,” right? I would ask you what your thoughts are about claims about bad popes like John XII, if indeed you believe any were bad. Do you think that through all of their sins and things, they never wanted to officially contradict any doctrine, or they were mystically barred from doing so?

I would also ask you whether you consider any doctrine on faith and morals infallible that was not explicitly claimed to be infallible. From what I gather only two articles, both about Mary, are infallible. If that’s true, what explains this paucity of infallible declarations, since such strong consistency has been maintained anyway? If that’s false, forget it.
 
True things can be falsifiable, too. If something is true, obviously it can’t be proven false, but if we can conceive of hypothetical scenarios that would, were they not hypothetical, prove it false, then it is falsifiable. For example, the claim “It didn’t rain yesterday,” is true (at least where I am) and falsifiable, because I can conceive of a way to prove it false: I can check yesterday’s weather, and if it says, “it rained yesterday,” then the claim is falsified. Just being able to conceive of a scenario where the claim is false is enough to render it falsifiable. It seems like you don’t think a scenario where papal infallibility is false is even conceivable, so your answer to the question is “no,” I think.
The sun is hot. Is that a statement that can be falsified?
 
The sun is hot. Is that a statement that can be falsified?
It appears so from a physical perspective. In physics something is hot if its temperature is above absolute zero degrees. So if someone hypothetically determined that the sun’s temperature is absolute zero, then the statement “the sun is hot” would be proven false. The fact that this scenario is conceivable means that the statement is falsifiable. If you mean “hotter than a comfortable or bearable temperature” when you say “hot,” then I can conceive of someone feeling comfortable and bearing the temperature on the sun, so, at least to them, the statement would be false, meaning that it is falsifiable.

A statement like “there is an imperceptible ogre under my bed,” is not falsifiable, because every conceivable way to determine that no such ogre is under my bed would be fully consistent with it being there, imperceptibly. Looking under the bed wouldn’t do; I could say that the fact that you don’t see anything under there is just further proof that the ogre is imperceptible. Inventing and utilizing an “ogre-perceiving device” wouldn’t do either, since it would only work on perceptible ogres, not the imperceptible one under my bed. No proof that this statement is false can be conceived, whereas proof that the sun is not hot can be conceived.
 
It appears so from a physical perspective. In physics something is hot if its temperature is above absolute zero degrees. So if someone hypothetically determined that the sun’s temperature is absolute zero, then the statement “the sun is hot” would be proven false. The fact that this scenario is conceivable means that the statement is falsifiable. If you mean “hotter than a comfortable or bearable temperature” when you say “hot,” then I can conceive of someone feeling comfortable and bearing the temperature on the sun, so, at least to them, the statement would be false, meaning that it is falsifiable.

A statement like “there is an imperceptible ogre under my bed,” is not falsifiable, because every conceivable way to determine that no such ogre is under my bed would be fully consistent with it being there, imperceptibly. Looking under the bed wouldn’t do; I could say that the fact that you don’t see anything under there is just further proof that the ogre is imperceptible. Inventing and utilizing an “ogre-perceiving device” wouldn’t do either, since it would only work on perceptible ogres, not the imperceptible one under my bed. No proof that this statement is false can be conceived, whereas proof that the sun is not hot can be conceived.
I don’t think ’ the sun is hot’ can be falsifiable in theory or in practice since I am already starting from the position of feeling the sun hot on my skin. I already know its hot so I cannot even hypothetically imagine that the sun is below absolute zero.
 
So I have you down as “Yes, papal infallibility is falsifiable in theory, and the fact that it hasn’t been proven false even though the possibility exists is good evidence that it is in fact true,” right?
Well, almost. My position would be that that fact is one of two premises in a good argument for the truth of papal infallibility, the other being…

P2. If Papal infallibility were false, the vast differences in human nature would have caused this to be disproven, in any other circumstance.
I would ask you what your thoughts are about claims about bad popes like John XII, if indeed you believe any were bad. Do you think that through all of their sins and things, they never wanted to officially contradict any doctrine, or they were mystically barred from doing so?
I would say that there have been some very bad popes; most especially Pope Sergius III. However, my evaluation has been that they were permitted to alter certain things, but always stopped short of changing any actual doctrines. I would doubt that mysticism has anything to do with it, however. My position is that it is direct action on the part of divine providence that brings this about. God, after all, is the Lord of history.
I would also ask you whether you consider any doctrine on faith and morals infallible that was not explicitly claimed to be infallible. From what I gather only two articles, both about Mary, are infallible. If that’s true, what explains this paucity of infallible declarations, since such strong consistency has been maintained anyway? If that’s false, forget it.
Very few of the church’s doctrines were ever -declared- by the pope as doctrine, if that’s what you mean. I can only think of two off the top of my head. Every doctrine of the Roman Catholic Church, however, is true and unchangeable, or it wouldn’t be a doctrine. I hesitate to call doctrines “infallible,” however, since the word is really only used to apply to a person who can’t make errors in pronouncements of faith or morals; not to the pronouncements themselves.

The -declaration- of a doctrine only happens if a true doctrine needs to be defined as such, because it’s being challenged, and we see this in the various ecumenical councils of the Church (with the exception of Vatican II, obviously.) For example, the way the Council of Nicea affirmed the divinity of Jesus against Bishop Arius and his followers, who were challenging it. Catholics should view these judgments as true and unchangeable, since they were defined by the pope in communion with the bishops on a matter of faith or morals.
 
I don’t think ’ the sun is hot’ can be falsifiable in theory or in practice since I am already starting from the position of feeling the sun hot on my skin. I already know its hot so I cannot even hypothetically imagine that the sun is below absolute zero.
I would like to distinguish between “falsified” and “falsifiable.” I agree with you that “sun is hot” cannot be falsified because it cannot be proven false because it is true.

However you can imagine that the sun is at absolute zero. You’re doing it right now. The only reason you can tell me that you can feel the sun’s heat on your skin is because you can conceive of what would be different if that weren’t the case. People have taken the sun’s temperature. Its surface is 5873.15 degrees above absolute zero. It is possible to conceive that an experiment results in the conclusion that the sun is zero degrees above absolute zero. The fact that such an experiment can take place even theoretically means that “the sun is hot” is falsifiable.

Do you see the difference between that and the statement, “there is an imperceptible ogre under my bed?” The scenario that there isn’t one is identical to the scenario that there is one. No experiment that can even be conceived could rule out the possibility that there is an imperceptible ogre under my bed. On the other hand, I can conceive of an experiment that could rule out the possibility that the sun is hot: checking its temperature, which it appears you were doing with your skin. It hasn’t been falsified, but your experiment demonstrates that it is falsifiable in theory.

If you’d like to learn more about falsifiability I think this powerpoint does a good job of explaining it.
 
I would like to distinguish between “falsified” and “falsifiable.” I agree with you that “sun is hot” cannot be falsified because it cannot be proven false because it is true.

However you can imagine that the sun is at absolute zero. You’re doing it right now. The only reason you can tell me that you can feel the sun’s heat on your skin is because you can conceive of what would be different if that weren’t the case. People have taken the sun’s temperature. Its surface is 5873.15 degrees above absolute zero. It is possible to conceive that an experiment results in the conclusion that the sun is zero degrees above absolute zero. The fact that such an experiment can take place even theoretically means that “the sun is hot” is falsifiable.

Do you see the difference between that and the statement, “there is an imperceptible ogre under my bed?” The scenario that there isn’t one is identical to the scenario that there is one. No experiment that can even be conceived could rule out the possibility that there is an imperceptible ogre under my bed. On the other hand, I can conceive of an experiment that could rule out the possibility that the sun is hot: checking its temperature, which it appears you were doing with your skin. It hasn’t been falsified, but your experiment demonstrates that it is falsifiable in theory.

If you’d like to learn more about falsifiability I think this powerpoint does a good job of explaining it.
I think my original intention was the statement, the sun is hot, not the actual sun, is it hot?
Is the statement falsifiable?
 
There is much to answer in your post, but I choose to focus on this. Can you give a single example in which the Church has contradicted herself on matters of faith or morals (doctrine)?
No, because I don’t believe there is a single example.
 
Modus ponens
If the pope has free will, then the pope is free to say that a falsehood is infallibly true.
The pope has free will.
Hence the pope is free to say that a falsehood is infallibly true.
I agree that it is simpler to just deal with this. The form of the conditional proposition is valid. I agree with the premises. The conclusion is true.

Please note, the conclusion only leads to the (logical) possibility that a pope is free to state a falsehood as infallibly true. It does not entail that a pope ever will state that a falsehood is infallibly true. It is logically possible that the Pope will never state that a falsehood is infallibly true.

Of course, Catholics assert that God is omniscient such that he foresees all future free acts of human beings, so He knows whether a Pope will actually state that a falsehood is infallibly true. He has revealed through the Magisterium of the Church that this will not happen.
Modus tollens
If the pope has free will, then the pope is free to say that a falsehood is infallibly true.
The pope is not free to say that a falsehood is infallibly true.
Hence the pope does not have free will.
I deny the second premise; therefore, I deny the necessary truth of the conclusion.
So I have you down as “Yes, papal infallibility is falsifiable in theory, and the fact that it hasn’t been proven false even though the possibility exists is good evidence that it is in fact true,” right? I would ask you what your thoughts are about claims about bad popes like John XII, if indeed you believe any were bad. Do you think that through all of their sins and things, they never wanted to officially contradict any doctrine, or they were mystically barred from doing so?
That’s never really been my argument. I think the evidence cuts both ways. As you point out, there have been “bad” popes in the sense that some engaged in personal scandalous acts or were otherwise poor leaders. There are accounts of Popes who very likely held heterodox personal theological opinions. I only use the lack of contradiction in the exercise of the extraordinary papal magisterium as a defense to claims of inconsistency, or, in this case, unfalsifiability.

As to your second question, I believe that the grace bestowed by the Holy Spirit requires a free act on the part of the recipient. This is consistent with Catholic theology.
I would also ask you whether you consider any doctrine on faith and morals infallible that was not explicitly claimed to be infallible
.

That’s a very difficult question for me to answer today since the CC has definitively taught on most moral issues that commonly face us. I certainly believe that moral truths can be known apart from any knowledge of the teaching of the CC. I’m a proponent of natural law theory, so I believe truths can be known apart from God’s revelation. Most importantly, the CC definitively teaches that human beings can know moral truths by the natural power of the intellect.
From what I gather only two articles, both about Mary, are infallible. If that’s true, what explains this paucity of infallible declarations, since such strong consistency has been maintained anyway? If that’s false, forget it.
It’s not entirely accurate. Unam Santum is an infallible papal decree. There are probably more, but we don’t generally focus on the source of individual dogmatic decrees. There is one deposit of truth for Catholics, regardless of whether it’s from an ecumenical council, the ordinary teaching magisterium or from an ex cathedra pronouncement. Many times, if not most times, it’s from more than one.
 
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