Shall we say, then, that in a romantic relationship, under normal circumstances, passionate kissing is libidinous?
I can’t make that judgment. Passionate kissing is probably misused more of then than not, but you have to take it in a case-by-case basis regardless of the statistics anyway, so the statistics aren’t particularly relevant.
The moral licitness of the act is highly dependent on the inner thoughts and feelings of the people involved. As such, it becomes virtually impossible to make a judgment on this issue for someone else, much less a definite judgement, and it’s largely absurd to try.
More, that it is meant to be libidinous, that one of the primary reasons to engage in the activity (even in a healthy married relationship) is to produce sexual excitement?
It can be. It may not be. It depends on information an outsider can’t generally be privy to.
Incidentally, I’d like you to tell me how an extended period of saliva exchange says “I love you” in a safe, chaste (i.e., non-libidinous), and respectful way.
In more-or-less the same way that a brief period of saliva exchange does, only more so. It’s focus.
Um, no – that’s primarily a psychological change, unless you admit anything that changes a person in any way whatsoever as an “ontological change”. When I used the term, I meant something that permanently changes the nature of existence of the two people involved.
According to the Catechism, sex does just that. You’re free to disagree, of course, but then this changes to a comparative religions discussion and can’t really be resolved.
You’ve left out the key word – I asked for a good reason to say that it is (not that it *might *conceivably be under some rare and abnormal set of conditions) morally acceptable.
If it communicates love, it is good.
Passionate kissing is emulative of sex, as I’ve already pointed out. It often involves one person entering the other’s body in an erogenous zone.
In that case, so are a number of medical exams.
And emulative or not, it’s
not sex. The distinction between them is huge.
You haven’t disagreed; you haven’t addressed the point. You’ve merely asserted that passionate kissing many not be sexually stimulating. Now, do you agree that, in order to deem it morally permissible, you must "know with relative certainty that… passionate kissing [in your circumstance] is not and will not be sexually stimulating"?
Pretty much. A certain low degree of sexual stimulation may be ok, depending on the relationship, as long as the couple can be darn sure it’s not going to go further than that. This is just speculative, though, as it seems reasonable to me for fiancees to desire each other a certain amount, for people who have been dating for a long while to desire each other a certain amount, and for people who have only been dating a short while to desire each other. After all, were licit desire not a spectrum, then either the couple should never desire each other, or they should miraculously go from absolutely nothing to full the exact moment the priest pronounces them man and wife. Given the way humans function, I think the latter option is much more probably.
Same problem here – empty assertion.
We’re
both making assertions. Yours is merely an absolute, which means it can be disproven by a single counterexample. Of course, the issue there is I can’t provide a counterexample which you are bound to agree with without somehow caused said example to be you yourself.
*Again, do you agree that, in order to deem it morally permissible in a specific situation, you must “*Know with relative certainty **that passionate kissing…is not an occasion of sin, which is to say, it’s not an instance where the participants needlessly place themselves in such a state in which if they fail to exercise sufficient self-control they will fall into sin.”
More or less, but not to the letter. If there’s a real concern that they could sin, then they shouldn’t do it. The way you’ve phrased it, though, makes it such that if there is any level of temptation
at all, they shouldn’t do it. However, I might find myself tempted by my boss’s secretary, for example, a temptation that comes entirely unbidden, yet I don’t have to quit my job. We’re supposed to
avoid temptation, not
stay away at all costs, in no small part because avoiding it isn’t always reasonable, or possible.
I take this to mean that you actually agree with me under most circumstances.
Kindasorta, to an extent.
I would argue that if there are circumstances where the couple is unsure of whether or not passionate kissing will lead to sexual excitement, they have a moral duty to refrain from it – at the very least, because it would constitute an occasion of sin. Then I would argue that every reasonable instance of passionate kissing between two people romantically involved falls at least into this last category; that is to say, the reasonable expectation of anyone engaging in passionate kissing under normal circumstances should be that he will in all probability become sexually excited. Can you give me a clear counter-example, instead of just saying “well, there may be some cases where that’s not true; don’t use absolutes”?
Sure. I have been in instances in which passionate kissing did not equate to sexual arousal. Problem is, you have no reason to believe me, since you’ve already defined your beliefs; I can’t give any examples other than of myself since the example requires interior information; and the subject is uncomfortable to discuss for a number of reasons irrelevant to the current discussion.