Is taking "The pill" for exclusively medical reasons while remaining abstinent sinful

[Ham1]

Curious:

I’m confused. If a woman HAD to take the pill for medical reasons, and the reasons were truly legit and the pill was really helping then she and her husband would have to abstain? So you’re denying one gift of God (the gift of sex in marriage) for fear that you’re stopping another gift? (the gift of children). It sounds like the couple is being punished for a condition that the woman cannot help.

No. It has been pointed out numerous times on numerous threads by apologists and theologians (not me) who are worthy of respect, that a married couple who has a truly legitimate reason (without any other alternative) to take medication that could cause infertility or even spontaneous abortion is NOT obligated to abstain from marital relations.

 

[Trelow]

Pug:

Hmmm. Okay, you are saying it is a euphamism in Brendan’s post. So, what would it mean to say, “contraception …is only immoral in the confines of the marital act”. This seems to say that it would be moral to use contraception outside a basic context of sexual intercourse, but when would you ever do that and still call it contraception? I’m probably being a total idiot here, I know.

Right. Not, that you are an idiot, but otherwise. He probably could have worded it better.

To answer the question : 15. On the other hand, the Church does not consider at all illicit the use of those therapeutic means necessary to cure bodily diseases, even if a foreseeable impediment to procreation should result there from—provided such impediment is not directly intended for any motive whatsoever.
vatican.va/holy_father/paul_vi/encyclicals/documents/hf_p-vi_enc_25071968_humanae-vitae_en.html

But there is a better way, you can actuly treat the problem, instead of covering it up.

popepaulvi.com/

 

[Curious]

No. It has been pointed out numerous times on numerous threads by apologists and theologians (not me) who are worthy of respect, that a married couple who has a truly legitimate reason (without any other alternative) to take medication that could cause infertility or even spontaneous abortion is NOT obligated to abstain from marital relations.

Okay thanks. And sorry, I didn’t see the numerous times in the numerous threads. I don’t haunt every one of these numerous threads anyway. But thanks for the info.

 

[pnewton]

Ham1:

No. It has been pointed out numerous times on numerous threads by apologists and theologians (not me) who are worthy of respect, that a married couple who has a truly legitimate reason (without any other alternative) to take medication that could cause infertility or even spontaneous abortion is NOT obligated to abstain from marital relations.

FYI - Here are links for those interested.

forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=30575

forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=15756

forums.catholic-questions.org/showthread.php?t=19440

 

[StPeterRules]

This reminds me of a question I once heard asked along the same lines:

Is it a sin to use a condom as a water balloon???

The intent, nor its use, is preventing life, which is the spirit of the law. I do not think God will punish someone who has done their homework medically, and received copious advice on it being necessary, all the while NOT using it as a contraceptive tool.

 

[felra]

Ham1:

No. It has been pointed out numerous times on numerous threads by apologists and theologians (not me) who are worthy of respect, that a married couple who has a truly legitimate reason (without any other alternative) to take medication that could cause infertility or even spontaneous abortion is NOT obligated to abstain from marital relations.

Yes. But, I have to say for myself, if being in this situation, that inadvertedly my child was spontaneously aborted, unknown to me, until I meet him/her on the other side of eternity, I would have severe reservations about the licit therapeutic use of a medication which has the abortifacient potential–one of those unintended but avoidable effects of treating a medical condition.

There have been other posters in previous threads who have challenged the double effect validity of this by weighing in the unintended spontaneous abortion side effect as mitigating the double effect conditions for having marital relations while on the pill. Makes me wonder about the seamless garment of life in being pro-life to the core, to the extent of “dying to self”.

 

[infoguy]

…

I would think the big issue here is INTENT.
If one is honestly taking it only for health reasons, and no other, then I wonder how it could be a problem.

The post says that the person is remaining abstinent, and I think that would be very important.

…