Is the Bible truly infallible or inerrant?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Holly3278
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
H

Holly3278

Guest
Hi everyone. Some people say that the Bible is infallible and others say that it is inerrant. I want to know exactly what the Church teaches about this. If you have any encyclicals on this, please post them. If you have any other official Church documents about this including Pope Benedict’s homilies or homilies of past popes, please post them as well. I want evidence that the Bible is truly infallible or inerrant.

I believe I read somewhere that the Church teaches that the Bible is innerrant. Is this true? What exactly is the definition of inerrant according to the Catholic Church anyway?

I also know that some people do not believe the Bible to be properly translated. What do you say to this?

In short, what evidence do we have to show that the Bible is infallible or inerrant or both?

I have posted this because I am currently having doubts about the Bible. Thank you for your time.
 
…I have posted this because I am currently having doubts about the Bible. Thank you for your time.
There are no simple answers to what you are asking and this subject (or subjects) has been debated in many forms for a long time. Even the definitions of the terms you are using are subject to considerable debate.

A good summary of this topic is available in the inexpensive booklet “Biblical Fundamentalism - What Every Catholic Should Know” by Ronald Witherup S.S. (imprimatur and Nihil Obstat). In spite of the title, all the topics you mentioned are discussed.

Another good source is the book used in many Catholic Adult scripture studies: “And God Said What?” by Margaret Ralph.

It appears you want precise answers and reading something like this might be a better start than engaging in a lengthy debate betweeen random internet posters on a very controversial topic.
 
From Dei Verbum
Therefore, since everything asserted by the inspired authors or sacred writers must be held to be asserted by the Holy Spirit, it follows that the books of Scripture must be acknowledged as teaching solidly, faithfully and without error that truth which God wanted put into sacred writings for the sake of salvation.
This is a matter of debate and continued study. While the scriptures are inerrant, the exact meaning of inerrancy is debated. I take this to mean that the things that God intended to teach us in scripture are inerrant and infallible. But those things can be taught using different literary forms, including sacred myth, fiction, history, parables, etc. And things like historical details, even in an historical account, which aren’t part of what God wanted to teach aren’t *necessary *inerrant.
 
It may seem contradictory, but I hold that the Bible is inerrant, in that it teaches us what God intended to teach us - but it is not infallible. If it was infallible, it would teach without error, and if it did, then the non-Catholic Christians would not have so many different interpretations.

Caveat: I’m having a bad day, so my thinking may be fuzzy.

God bless us all,

Ruthie
 
Part of the problem here is one of grammar.

Strictly speaking, an inanimate object (like a book–even an inspired one) cannot be infallible. Fallibility (or infallibility, for that matter) implies that someone or some thing can attempt an action and either succeed at it or or fail. Books can’t do this.

On the other hand, people (and even animals) can be fallible because they can attempt things and fail. It is also related to what we say about the Pope – that he is infallible when making a pronouncement regarding faith or morals under certain conditions. His charism is a negative one: while it doesn’t force him to make pronouncements of this sort, when he does the Holy Spirit prevents him from teaching error. Thus, in these limited situations, he is said to be infallible.

It is more proper, therefore, to refer to Scripture as being inerrant, or better yet, to say that it is free from all error in what the Holy Spirit inspired the writers to put down in writing for our instruction, encouragement, and edification.

As someone noted above, however, the fact that Scripture is inerrant doesn’t guarantee we’ll always interpret it corrrectly or that someone will not interpret it incorrectly. That is why Jesus gave the Church authority to definitively interpret the Scriptures. It would be the height of foolishness to think that God gave us an inspired, inerrant Bible without an infallible interpreter.

Hope that helps. 🙂
 
From Dei Verbum

This is a matter of debate and continued study. While the scriptures are inerrant, the exact meaning of inerrancy is debated. I take this to mean that the things that God intended to teach us in scripture are inerrant and infallible. But those things can be taught using different literary forms, including sacred myth, fiction, history, parables, etc. And things like historical details, even in an historical account, which aren’t part of what God wanted to teach aren’t *necessary *inerrant.
What justification is there concerning the truth of the statement that all scripture is divinely inspired?
 
What justification is there concerning the truth of the statement that all scripture is divinely inspired?
From the Catholic Answers Tract “Proving Inspiration”:

The Catholic method of proving the Bible to be inspired is this: The Bible is initially approached as any other ancient work. It is not, at first, presumed to be inspired. From textual criticism we are able to conclude that we have a text the accuracy of which is more certain than the accuracy of any other ancient work.

An Accurate Text

Sir Frederic Kenyon, in The Story of the Bible, notes that “For all the works of classical antiquity we have to depend on manuscripts written long after their original composition. The author who is the best case in this respect is Virgil, yet the earliest manuscript of Virgil that we now possess was written some 350 years after his death. For all other classical writers, the interval between the date of the author and the earliest extant manuscript of his works is much greater. For Livy it is about 500 years, for Horace 900, for most of Plato 1,300, for Euripides 1,600.” Yet no one seriously disputes that we have accurate copies of the works of these writers. However, in the case of the New Testament we have parts of manuscripts dating from the first and early second centuries, only a few decades after the works were penned.

Not only are the biblical manuscripts that we have older than those for classical authors, we have in sheer numbers far more manuscripts from which to work. Some are whole books of the Bible, others fragments of just a few words, but there are literally thousands of manuscripts in Hebrew, Greek, Latin, Coptic, Syriac, and other languages. This means that we can be sure we have an authentic text, and we can work from it with confidence.

The Bible as Historical Truth

Next we take a look at what the Bible, considered merely as a history, tells us, focusing particularly on the New Testament, and more specifically the Gospels. We examine the account contained therein of Jesus’ life, death, and resurrection.

Using what is in the Gospels themselves and what we find in extra-biblical writings from the early centuries, together with what we know of human nature (and what we can otherwise, from natural reason alone, know of divine nature), we conclude that either Jesus was just what he claimed to be—God—or he was crazy. (The one thing we know he could not have been was merely a good man who was not God, since no merely good man would make the claims he made.)

We are able to eliminate the possibility of his being a madman not just from what he said but from what his followers did after his death. Many critics of the Gospel accounts of the resurrection claim that Christ did not truly rise, that his followers took his body from the tomb and then proclaimed him risen from the dead. According to these critics, the resurrection was nothing more than a hoax. Devising a hoax to glorify a friend and mentor is one thing, but you do not find people dying for a hoax, at least not one from which they derive no benefit. Certainly if Christ had not risen his disciples would not have died horrible deaths affirming the reality and truth of the resurrection. The result of this line of reasoning is that we must conclude that Jesus indeed rose from the dead. Consequently, his claims concerning himself—including his claim to be God—have credibility. He meant what he said and did what he said he would do.

Further, Christ said he would found a Church. Both the Bible (still taken as merely a historical book, not yet as an inspired one) and other ancient works attest to the fact that Christ established a Church with the rudiments of what we see in the Catholic Church today—papacy, hierarchy, priesthood, sacraments, and teaching authority.

We have thus taken the material and purely historically concluded that Jesus founded the Catholic Church. Because of his Resurrection we have reason to take seriously his claims concerning the Church, including its authority to teach in his name.

This Catholic Church tells us the Bible is inspired, and we can take the Church’s word for it precisely because the Church is infallible. Only after having been told by a properly constituted authority—that is, one established by God to assure us of the truth concerning matters of faith—that the Bible is inspired can we reasonably begin to use it as an inspired book.

A Spiral Argument

Note that this is not a circular argument. We are not basing the inspiration of the Bible on the Church’s infallibility and the Church’s infallibility on the word of an inspired Bible. That indeed would be a circular argument! What we have is really a spiral argument. On the first level we argue to the reliability of the Bible insofar as it is history. From that we conclude that an infallible Church was founded. And then we take the word of that infallible Church that the Bible is inspired. This is not a circular argument because the final conclusion (the Bible is inspired) is not simply a restatement of its initial finding (the Bible is historically reliable), and its initial finding (the Bible is historically reliable) is in no way based on the final conclusion (the Bible is inspired). What we have demonstrated is that without the existence of the Church, we could never know whether the Bible is inspired.
 
I believe I read somewhere that the Church teaches that the Bible is innerrant. Is this true? What exactly is the definition of inerrant according to the Catholic Church anyway?
It simply means that, on the moral, theological, or doctrinal subject that the sacred author is writing about, there are no errors. For example, although there are stories of people committing adultery or fornication in the Bible, there is nothing to indicate that this behaviour is acceptable in any way, shape, or form - it is clear that God condemns adultery, while at the same time He loves and forgives those who repent of this or any other sin.

It also means that the sacred author, when he is employing various literary devices, didn’t “get it wrong” - rather, he may have placed a clue or indicator that his story is an allegorical work (for example, by using the name of a King who in reality lived in a different place or at a different time) - the sacred author does this deliberately, to make a point - he hasn’t made some kind of a mistake.
 
And how is that different from infallibility?
Only a person can be “infallible” - infallible means not able to teach error.

The Bible doesn’t teach. It’s a static, unchanging message. It isn’t conscious of itself, and it has no awareness of who is reading it, or what message they may be (mis)understanding from its pages. It has no ability to correct misunderstandings, or to prevent the misuse of its contents.
 
From the Catholic Answers Tract “Proving Inspiration”:

The Catholic method of proving the Bible to be inspired is this: The Bible is initially approached as any other ancient work. It is not, at first, presumed to be inspired. From textual criticism we are able to conclude that we have a text the accuracy of which is more certain than the accuracy of any other ancient work.

An Accurate Text

Sir Frederic Kenyon, in The Story of the Bible, notes that “For all the works of classical antiquity we have to depend on manuscripts written long after their original composition. The author who is the best case in this respect is Virgil, yet the earliest manuscript of Virgil that we now possess was written some 350 years after his death. For all other classical writers, the interval between the date of the author and the earliest extant manuscript of his works is much greater. For Livy it is about 500 years, for Horace 900, for most of Plato 1,300, for Euripides 1,600.” Yet no one seriously disputes that we have accurate copies of the works of these writers. However, in the case of the New Testament we have parts of manuscripts dating from the first and early second centuries, only a few decades after the works were penned.

Not only are the biblical manuscripts that we have older than those for classical authors, we have in sheer numbers far more manuscripts from which to work. Some are whole books of the Bible, others fragments of just a few words, but there are literally thousands of manuscripts in Hebrew, Greek, Latin, Coptic, Syriac, and other languages. This means that we can be sure we have an authentic text, and we can work from it with confidence.

The Bible as Historical Truth

Next we take a look at what the Bible, considered merely as a history, tells us, focusing particularly on the New Testament, and more specifically the Gospels. We examine the account contained therein of Jesus’ life, death, and resurrection.

Using what is in the Gospels themselves and what we find in extra-biblical writings from the early centuries, together with what we know of human nature (and what we can otherwise, from natural reason alone, know of divine nature), we conclude that either Jesus was just what he claimed to be—God—or he was crazy. (The one thing we know he could not have been was merely a good man who was not God, since no merely good man would make the claims he made.)

We are able to eliminate the possibility of his being a madman not just from what he said but from what his followers did after his death. Many critics of the Gospel accounts of the resurrection claim that Christ did not truly rise, that his followers took his body from the tomb and then proclaimed him risen from the dead. According to these critics, the resurrection was nothing more than a hoax. Devising a hoax to glorify a friend and mentor is one thing, but you do not find people dying for a hoax, at least not one from which they derive no benefit. Certainly if Christ had not risen his disciples would not have died horrible deaths affirming the reality and truth of the resurrection. The result of this line of reasoning is that we must conclude that Jesus indeed rose from the dead. Consequently, his claims concerning himself—including his claim to be God—have credibility. He meant what he said and did what he said he would do.

Further, Christ said he would found a Church. Both the Bible (still taken as merely a historical book, not yet as an inspired one) and other ancient works attest to the fact that Christ established a Church with the rudiments of what we see in the Catholic Church today—papacy, hierarchy, priesthood, sacraments, and teaching authority.

We have thus taken the material and purely historically concluded that Jesus founded the Catholic Church. Because of his Resurrection we have reason to take seriously his claims concerning the Church, including its authority to teach in his name.

This Catholic Church tells us the Bible is inspired, and we can take the Church’s word for it precisely because the Church is infallible. Only after having been told by a properly constituted authority—that is, one established by God to assure us of the truth concerning matters of faith—that the Bible is inspired can we reasonably begin to use it as an inspired book.

A Spiral Argument

Note that this is not a circular argument. We are not basing the inspiration of the Bible on the Church’s infallibility and the Church’s infallibility on the word of an inspired Bible. That indeed would be a circular argument! What we have is really a spiral argument. On the first level we argue to the reliability of the Bible insofar as it is history. From that we conclude that an infallible Church was founded. And then we take the word of that infallible Church that the Bible is inspired. This is not a circular argument because the final conclusion (the Bible is inspired) is not simply a restatement of its initial finding (the Bible is historically reliable), and its initial finding (the Bible is historically reliable) is in no way based on the final conclusion (the Bible is inspired). What we have demonstrated is that without the existence of the Church, we could never know whether the Bible is inspired.
This is very helpful! Thank you! 👍
 
Hi everyone. Some people say that the Bible is infallible and others say that it is inerrant. I want to know exactly what the Church teaches about this. If you have any encyclicals on this, please post them. If you have any other official Church documents about this including Pope Benedict’s homilies or homilies of past popes, please post them as well. I want evidence that the Bible is truly infallible or inerrant.

I believe I read somewhere that the Church teaches that the Bible is innerrant. Is this true? What exactly is the definition of inerrant according to the Catholic Church anyway?I also know that some people do not believe the Bible to be properly translated. What do you say to this?

What have you in mind ?​

In short, what evidence do we have to show that the Bible is infallible or inerrant or both?

None - faith is not helped by evidence: it tramples it underfoot, because evidence is an assault on faith. Those who seek to prove doctrines are destroying what they seek to support. If proof were worth anything, Christ would have been a greater Plato - He would not have been crucified. And salvation is by the Cross - ***not ***by argument or reason.​

I have posted this because I am currently having doubts about the Bible. Thank you for your time.

As so often, “it all depends what you mean” 🙂

I’m very sorry to hear of what you’re going through 😦
 

What have you in mind ?​

None - faith is not helped by evidence: it tramples it underfoot, because evidence is an assault on faith. Those who seek to prove doctrines are destroying what they seek to support. If proof were worth anything, Christ would have been a greater Plato - He would not have been crucified. And salvation is by the Cross - ***not ***by argument or reason.​

As so often, “it all depends what you mean” 🙂

I’m very sorry to hear of what you’re going through 😦
Thanks. As for what I had in mind, I am not really sure what you mean to be honest.

As for there being no evidence, that kind of came as a shock to me. Many Protestant Christian apologists will say that there is plenty of evidence that the Bible is either infallible or inerrant. But, what you say makes a lot of sense. Thank you. 👍

Also, thanks for your sympathy. Your prayers would be appreciated. I believe that the Bible is inerrant but I do have my doubts. I have faith that the Bible is inerrant but occasionally those doubts creep up in my mind and I wonder if maybe the entire Bible isn’t nothing more than a useless fable. 😊😦 I am greatly ashamed that I have these doubts sometimes but I must be honest, they do happen to me. Why, I don’t know. 🤷
 
Only a person can be “infallible” - infallible means not able to teach error.

The Bible doesn’t teach. It’s a static, unchanging message. It isn’t conscious of itself, and it has no awareness of who is reading it, or what message they may be (mis)understanding from its pages. It has no ability to correct misunderstandings, or to prevent the misuse of its contents.
Sounds to me like a perfectly good explanation behind the Christ-established magisterium. You will be vigorously debated on this, by those who have 66/73rds of the bible in their hands, and nothing more to teach them!

Christ’s peace.
 
Sounds to me like a perfectly good explanation behind the Christ-established magisterium. You will be vigorously debated on this, by those who have 66/73rds of the bible in their hands, and nothing more to teach them!

Christ’s peace.
Yes, unfortunately what you say about the person being debated on this is true. Protestants are very misguided for the most part in my opinion. If they weren’t, they’d be Catholic. 👍
 
Yes, unfortunately what you say about the person being debated on this is true. Protestants are very misguided for the most part in my opinion. If they weren’t, they’d be Catholic. 👍
The bible is not a “committee” book. It must be interpreted by the church with the authority from on high. It’s tough enough to keep Catholics on the same page, especialy as November approaches. So many amongst us are full-time partisans and part-time Catholics.
 
The bible is not a “committee” book. It must be interpreted by the church with the authority from on high. It’s tough enough to keep Catholics on the same page, especialy as November approaches. So many amongst us are full-time partisans and part-time Catholics.
I totally agree. Good post! 👍
 
There is a tendency for some people to limit the inerrancy of Scripture to only certain parts which a person thinks are pertinent to salvation. Some people with this idea think it came from Vatican II, but it comes from a misreading or misinterpretation of what Vatican II said about the inerrancy of Scripture, and from ignoring what the Church had previously decreed about Scripture: Dei Verbum, paragraph 11 (quoted in CCC 107), reads “Therefore, since everything asserted by the inspired authors or sacred writers must be held to be asserted by the Holy Spirit, it follows that the books of Scripture must be acknowledged as teaching solidly, faithfully and without error that truth which God wanted put into sacred writings for the sake of salvation.” They take this ending clause and use it to mean that “only those things which are relevant to salvation are inerrant; the rest is not”, whereas the statement starts by saying that “everything asserted by the inspired authors or sacred writers must be held to be asserted by the Holy Spirit”. Vatican II was simply building upon the already-existing teaching of the Church on the inerrancy of Scripture, found in documents from the last 150 years (including decrees from the first Vatican Council).

When I heard about the Synod on the Word of God early last year, I decided I should read the lineamenta the Bishops put together to guide their preliminary investigations. But then I realized I’d never even read Dei Verbum from Vatican II, and since the synod’s document quoted it heavily, I should read it. Dei Verbum (DV) itself quotes, in particular, three earlier documents on Scripture – Dei Filius (DF) of Vatican I, Providentissimus Deus (PD) of Pope Leo XIII, and Divino Afflante Spiritu (DAS) of Pope Pius XII – so I figured I should read them too. There was also a 1964 document from the Pontifical Biblical Commission (back when it was still an official organ of the Vatican) about the historical quality of the Gospels, Sancta Mater Ecclesia. So I sat down and read all five of those documents (some considerably longer than the others). If you’re interested in a summary view of them (a few paragraphs on each document, a fair bit of reading!), I wrote about them on my blog last year:

thecrossreference.blogspot.com/2007/08/scripture-five-church-documents-on.html

One of the key points that is made in PD, and which was repeated in DAS, is this: “it is absolutely wrong and forbidden, either to narrow inspiration to certain parts only of Holy Scripture, or to admit that the sacred writer has erred … For all the books which the Church receives as sacred and canonical, are written wholly and entirely, with all their parts, at the dictation of the Holy Ghost; and so far is it from being possible that any error can co-exist with inspiration, that inspiration not only is essentially incompatible with error, but excludes and rejects it as absolutely and necessarily as it is impossible that God Himself, the supreme Truth, can utter that which is not true.” (Providentissimus Deus, paragraph 20)
 
In-fallible means unable to fall into error.

A book is incapable of falling into error, so it is infallible – logically. However, given that the book represents the author – one may speak of an infallible bible as an infallible work or proclamation of that author.

Though the “bible” does not do the verb – “proclaim” – it none the less is written by someone who did. The part of speech is like saying “all hands on deck” where the whole person is referred to by part.

The bible being the living word when preached by the church is an infallible proclamation. (even if the person preaching is clueless).

As a static text, however, it is merely inerrant – assuming the printing press made no changes like adding “alone”, etc.
Because infallible, although true of the book itself – is rather irrelevant.

Which brings us back to the full teaching authority of the church, which is infallible. Although the Latin bible goes through periodic revisions… it still is inerrant.

Does this help?
 
In-fallible means unable to fall into error.

A book is incapable of falling into error, so it is infallible – logically. However, given that the book represents the author – one may speak of an infallible bible as an infallible work or proclamation of that author.

Though the “bible” does not do the verb – “proclaim” – it none the less is written by someone who did. The part of speech is like saying “all hands on deck” where the whole person is referred to by part.

The bible being the living word when preached by the church is an infallible proclamation. (even if the person preaching is clueless).

As a static text, however, it is merely inerrant – assuming the printing press made no changes like adding “alone”, etc.
Because infallible, although true of the book itself – is rather irrelevant.

Which brings us back to the full teaching authority of the church, which is infallible. Although the Latin bible goes through periodic revisions… it still is inerrant.

Does this help?
That does help quite a bit. Thank you! 👍
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top