Is their any biblical proof for this?

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Can someone show me a difinative proof that this all sins can be forgiven, from biblical quotes or infallible statements. I have had enough of wondering about this.

Also where is this in the bible: " In the same place St. Chrysostom tells us, that someof those who had blasphemed against the Holy Ghost, repented, and had their sins forgiven them."

Also infallible statements or bible quotes stating what Blasphemy against Holy Spirit is would really help me.

please help me!😦
 
Can someone show me a difinative proof that this all sins can be forgiven, from biblical quotes or infallible statements. I have had enough of wondering about this.

Also where is this in the bible: " In the same place St. Chrysostom tells us, that someof those who had blasphemed against the Holy Ghost, repented, and had their sins forgiven them."

Also infallible statements or bible quotes stating what Blasphemy against Holy Spirit is would really help me.

please help me!😦
Did you read the thread referred to in post #38?
 
yes all of it thanks by the way 👍

it said this in it

" In the same place St. Chrysostom tells us, that someof those who had blasphemed against the Holy Ghost, repented, and had their sins forgiven them."

where is this in the bible, if i could find it, it would greatly help me
 
yes all of it thanks by the way 👍

it said this in it

" In the same place St. Chrysostom tells us, that someof those who had blasphemed against the Holy Ghost, repented, and had their sins forgiven them."

where is this in the bible, if i could find it, it would greatly help me
This doesn’t seem to be a quote from the bible. Why does it need to be?
 
no it’s not a quote it’s refering to a place in the bible where the events decribed happened
 
Thanks for your help, i still dont understand why the passage cannot be taken literally though ‘whoever speaks a word against the Holy Spirit will never be forgiven’. This is why i am having trouble with the concept of forgiveness for the literal act.
It can be taken literally if it is uttered from a person who is no longer in a state of becoming, if spoken by a person in an eternal state of rejecting God. Have you confessed this sin to your Priest? The theives crucified with Jesus are examples of the state of becoming and an eternal state.
 
And as I said, a person has to remain in that state.
Why is this so, how do you prove this?

also does this
" In the same place St. Chrysostom tells us, that someof those who had blasphemed against the Holy Ghost, repented, and had their sins forgiven them."
take place in the bible (not the quote the actions)

I still need help with this…
please help me 😦
 
St Paul was just like those Jesus aimed the teaching at. It was under Paul’s authority and Paul’s decision to kill the first martyr. I’m sure Paul denied the miracles and I’m just as sure Paul knew they weren’t trick’s even if he didn’t witness them he would have heard they were really happening and like the other Pharisee’s chose to believe they were evil. Paul calls himself chief of sinners, seems to me the man who was actively persuing the desires of the same men Jesus aimed the teaching at that he had Blasphemed the Holy Spirit.
 
I just need something definate to remove all posibility that ‘Blasphemy against the Holy spirit’ is refusal to repent.

Could anyone provide me with this? The other posts helped but they were more logic and reasoning not fact.
 
Good afternoon Pete!

Perhaps this verse will be of comfort to you:

“All that the Father gives me will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will never cast out” (John 6:37).

If you come to Jesus, he will never cast you out no matter what you’ve done. If you sin, no matter what the sin, you can come to Jesus and He will never cast you out. If you are sorry for your sin and repent, then you will not be lost: “For godly grief produces a repentance that leads to salvation without regret” (1 Cor. 7:10). This is why the only unforgivable sin is the one that is not repented of.

Two other things to take into account when considering the guilt of these particular Pharisees are (1) the Pharisees were experts in the Law (“Everyone to whom much was given, of him much will be required” (Luke 12:48)) and (2) the Pharisees already knew that Jesus was a man of God: “we know that you are a teacher come from God, for no one can do these signs that you do unless God is with him” (John 3:2).

May the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit!
 
Final refusal to repet, i just dont understand why this is the case

😃
 
Good afternoon Pete!

Perhaps this verse will be of comfort to you:

“All that the Father gives me will come to me, and whoever comes to me I will never cast out” (John 6:37).

If you come to Jesus, he will never cast you out no matter what you’ve done. If you sin, no matter what the sin, you can come to Jesus and He will never cast you out. If you are sorry for your sin and repent, then you will not be lost: “For godly grief produces a repentance that leads to salvation without regret” (1 Cor. 7:10). This is why the only unforgivable sin is the one that is not repented of.

Two other things to take into account when considering the guilt of these particular Pharisees are (1) the Pharisees were experts in the Law (“Everyone to whom much was given, of him much will be required” (Luke 12:48)) and (2) the Pharisees already knew that Jesus was a man of God: “we know that you are a teacher come from God, for no one can do these signs that you do unless God is with him” (John 3:2).

May the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with your spirit!
You have helped me a great deal, thankyou :D, its just there are so many (apparently) conflicting statements in the Bible it has confused me. How does whoever comes to me I will never cast out" (John 6:37) fit in with the doctrine of mortal sin. If you ‘cast yourself out’ when you sin mortally, could it not be said that you cast yourself out forever when you have commited the unforgivable sin?
 
You have helped me a great deal, thankyou :D, its just there are so many (apparently) conflicting statements in the Bible it has confused me. How does whoever comes to me I will never cast out" (John 6:37) fit in with the doctrine of mortal sin. If you ‘cast yourself out’ when you sin mortally, could it not be said that you cast yourself out forever when you have commited the unforgivable sin?
How do you get from “mortal sin” to unforgivable sin?
 
If you commit a motal sin this does not mean that you have committed the unforgiveable sin…
yea i understand this, however i was refering to the
whoever comes to me I will never cast out" (John 6:37) quote, and was saying that when you commit a mortal sin you ‘cast yourself out’. I added that this could be the same for the unforgivable sin(.ie the literal act of speaking against the Holy Spirit), but you cast yourself out permanently. I then asked if this could be the case, and i now ask if someone can counter this argument.

I hope this makes my question more clear 😃

please help
 
yea i understand this, however i was refering to the
whoever comes to me I will never cast out" (John 6:37) quote, and was saying that when you commit a mortal sin you ‘cast yourself out’. I added that this could be the same for the unforgivable sin(.ie the literal act of speaking against the Holy Spirit), but you cast yourself out permanently. I then asked if this could be the case, and i now ask if someone can counter this argument.

I hope this makes my question more clear 😃

please help
If you “cast yourself out” by committing a mortal sin and persist in this state to your death, this is, I believe, the unforgivable sin. That is, denying the the God is willing to forgive any sin.
 
Final refusal to repet, i just dont understand why this is the case

😃
😛 …ok then.
Could you cast out someone who had offended you but had repented and become a person who loves you and hates what was done to you?
 
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